| Post Name | Non Vocational Teacher Physics (SR for ST Only) - Kerala Vocational Higher Secondary Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 067/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 449/2023 |
| Date of Test | 19 June 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Choose from the following options, the Lagranges equation for an electrical circuit consisting of an inductance L and capacitance C, which is charged to q Coulombs and i be the current flowing through the circuit?
Answer
D. ½Lq̇²−½q²/C
2
The equation of motion for a bead sliding on a uniformly rotating wire in a force free motion is
Answer
B. mr̈−mrθ̇²=0
3
What is the degree of freedom for three particles moving freely in a plane ?
Answer
D. 6
4
Which of the following equation represent Jacobi's for of the least action principle ?
Answer
C. Δ =0
5
The product of generalised coordinate and its conjugate momentum has the dimension of
Answer
A. Angular momentum
6
Which of the following represents the effective potential energy for orbits under inverse square law of force
Answer
C. −k/r+l²/(2mr²)
7
Due to Cariolis force a moving particle in the northern hemisphere is deflected towards
Answer
B. Right
8
What condition a function f(x) should fulfill to be expanded in Fourier series ?
Answer
D. Dirichlet's Condition
9
Compute the value of the integral using Gamma function: ∫₀^∞e⁻ˣ² dx
Answer
C. √π/2
10
Choose the correct answer from the following Γ(−1/2) = ____?
Answer
A. −2√π
11
Residue of f(z) at a simple pole z=p is
Answer
B. lim(z→p) (z−p)f(z)
12
Calculate the value of the integral ∮C ((2z+3)/(z(2z+1))) dz where C is a circle with |z|≤1
Answer
B. 2πi
13
Find the value of using Rodrigues formula for Legendre Polynomial
Answer
A. 2
14
Which of the following is true about Bessel functions of the second kind, denoted by Yₙ(x)?
Answer
D. They diverge at x=0 for all integer n
15
Satellites that orbit earth at a greater distance will be affected by which force ?
Answer
D. By gravitational fields of the sun and the earth's magnetic fields
16
There are five repeaters in 100Km for a silica fiber of 1 micro meter and it has measured losses of 3dB/Km. Calculate the total fiber loss that can be tolerated in a single link.
Answer
C. 60 dB
17
The Pinch-off voltage of a JFET depends on
Answer
D. The doping density and the geometry of the device
18
In a pulse code modulation the quantization error is a functions of
Answer
B. The input voltage
19
The value of the input voltage at which the switch will occur in a Schmidt Trigger is determined by which element of the circuit
Answer
C. The value of the input and feedback resisters
20
For an Op-Amp the differential gain is 100 and the common-mode voltage gain is -1, what is the value of Common mode rejection ratio (CMRR) in decibels ?
Answer
C. 40 dB
21
The internal quantum efficiency analysis of a solar cell can be used to find out
Answer
A. The diffusion length, minority carrier life time and surface recombination rate
22
The microprocessor instructions CALL and INTERRUPT both cause execution of a subroutine but differ in that
Answer
B. CALL is a software cause instruction and INTERRUPT is either software or a hardware cause instruction
23
While a microprocessor executing a program top priority will be given to
Answer
B. The INTERRUPT instruction
24
Which instruction in the 8085 Microprocessor instruction set control the AC (Auxiliary Carry) flag in the Flag Register
Answer
D. None of the above
25
From the pin configuration of 8085 which pin is specifically used for DMA data transfer
Answer
C. HOLD
26
Why the ALE pin in a Microprocessor is connected to a ADC (Analog to Digital Convertor)Circuit which is controlled by that Microprocessor
Answer
A. To control the transfer of data and Address
27
The microcontroller 8051 is incorporated with
Answer
C. Two 16 bit counters and timers
28
One of the most important main component of a Sample and Hold circuit is
Answer
B. N-Channel E-MOSFET
29
If Lₓ and Lᵧ are the angular momentum commutator components in position space, evaluate [Lₓ,Lᵧ]x.
Answer
D. −ℏ²y
30
Optical theorem in quantum mechanics encapsulates which conservation law ?
Answer
A. Conservation of energy
31
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Pauli's spin matrices ? i) The measurement of spin angular momentum component along any coordinate axis for an electron gives ℏ ii) The operators for spin components along three mutually orthogonal axes obey commutation relation iii) Pauli's spin matrices are Hermitian
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
32
For hard sphere of radius R, total cross-sectional area is
Answer
B. πR²
33
Which of the following statement is/are correct according to Klein- Gordon equation ? i Equation fulfills the special theory of relativity ii Equation allows indefinite probability density iii Equation allows negative energies as solution
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
34
If the atom is placed in an external magnetic field, no. of splitting states of 3d orbital would be
Answer
D. 7
35
Which one of the following theories clearly explain the fine structure of Hydrogen ?
Answer
B. Time independent perturbation theory
36
According to Gibbs paradox in statistical mechanics i Identical particles are distinguishable either by their quantum states or by their positions ii When gases are mixed, there is an increase in entropy due to the increased number of microstates available to the system iii Gibbs paradox provides deeper insights into the nature of particles and their behaviour in statistical systems
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
37
Quantum effects are important in thermodynamics if (L is the average interparticle spacing of a gas and λ is the thermal de Broglie wavelength):
Answer
B. λ > L
38
Let f=u(z) + iv(z) be an entire function in complex plane C. If |u(z)| < M for every z in C, where M is a positive constant, then
Answer
A. f is a constant function
39
The density matrix for an ensemble of spin ½ particles in the s_z basis is ρ=[[¼,n],[n*,¾]]. The asterisk represents complex conjugation. What values must n have for the density matrix to represent a pure state?
Answer
C. +√3/4, −√3/4
40
If ℏ=10⁻³⁴ Js, number density of copper=10²⁷ electrons/m³, rest mass of electron=9×10⁻³¹ kg, calculate the Fermi energy of copper:
Answer
B. ≈0.5×10⁻¹⁹ J
41
Gibb's free energy of an ideal Bose gas
Answer
A. 0
42
Which of the following statement describe Pauli para magnetism ?
Answer
A. The magnetization of a degenerate ideal Fermi gas of electrons with an external magnetic field
43
Density of the atomic nucleus is of the order of
Answer
D. 10¹⁷ kg/m³
44
In semi-empirical mass formula the surface energy term varies with mass number A as
Answer
B. −A²⁄³
45
Internal conversion in atomic nucleus occurs when
Answer
A. Nucleus is in an excited energy state
46
If Σ⁻ baryon has strangeness number S = −1, what is its quark composition?
Answer
D. dds
47
Which of the following atomic nuclei has magic number of protons as well as neutrons?
Answer
C. ²⁰⁸₈₂Pb
48
The XRD peak of a sample has FWHM of 0.9° corresponding to Bragg angle of 30°. What is the approximate crystallite size, if the wavelength of X-rays used is 0.154nm ?
Answer
B. 10nm
49
Which of the following Physicists won the Nobel Prize for discovering the eight fold symmetry and quark structure ?
Answer
D. Murray Gell-Mann
50
A unit cell has lattice parameters a = 11.20 Å, b = 8.63 Å, c = 6.19 Å, α = 47°, β = 81°, γ = 95°. Which crystal system does this belong to?
Answer
B. Triclinic
51
Determine the Miller indices of an atomic plane in a crystal that intercepts a, b and c axes in the ratio 1 : ∞ : 2
Answer
C. (2 0 1)
52
The specific heat capacity at constant volume for solids at extremely low temperatures varies as
Answer
A. T³
53
To which of the following categories does Copper belong to ?
Answer
B. Diamagnetic
54
Which of the following statements is false regarding piezoelectric crystals ?
Answer
C. Their molecules have centre of symmetry
55
The relation between critical magnetic field (H_C) and temperature T for a superconducting material is
Answer
A. H_C=H₀[1−(T/T_C)²]
56
The magnetic field H in a superconductor
Answer
B. decays exponentially with the penetration depth
57
Choose the correct option
Answer
C. has three normal modes of vibration where as has four normal modes of vibration
58
The energy level corresponding to non-rigid rotator is E_J=BJ(J+1)−DJ²(J+1)² where B is the rotational constant and D is the centrifugal distortion constant. The frequency of transition from the level J to level J+1 is given by
Answer
B. 2B(J+1)−4D(J+1)³ cm⁻¹
59
How does the Born-Oppenheimer approximation facilitate the calculation of molecular vibrational spectra ?
Answer
D. It assumes that the electronic states are stationary relative to the nuclear motion, allowing their separation when calculating vibrational spectra
60
What does Larmor precession describe in the context of magnetic resonance ?
Answer
A. The precession of the magnetic moment of nuclei in a constant magnetic field
61
Which of the following statements are true in the process of Stimulated Raman effect ? i) It is a non linear process ii) It needs population inversion of the states iii) It is a type of parametric amplification
Answer
C. Both (i) and (iii)
62
In the assignment of (v’, v”) values for a band in the vibrational analysis of a spectrum using Deslander's table, the bands (0,0), (1,1), (2,2) etc are called ___________
Answer
C. Sequences
63
Which among the following is a key feature of Mossbauer spectroscopy that enables the precise measurement of nuclear transitions ?
Answer
B. Resonant absorption and re-emission of gamma rays without recoil
64
Which of the following contributes to the broadening of spectral lines in a laser ? i) Collision broadening ii) Doppler broadening iii) Natural broadening
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
65
Which statement best describes the difference between Q-switching and mode-locking techniques used in laser operation ?
Answer
B. Q-switching generates high-power, short-duration laser pulses by modulating the quality factor of the optical cavity, whereas mode-locking synchronizes the phases of different modes to produce ultra-short pulses
66
What is the primary mechanism for the generation of laser light in a laser ?
Answer
C. The vibrational transitions of molecules in the gas phase, which emit photons at specific infrared wavelengths
67
The process of second-harmonic generation (SHG), when a high-power laser beam is passed through a crystal, what is a key requirement for effectively generating light at twice the frequency of the original beam
Answer
C. The refractive indices at the fundamental and second-harmonic frequencies must be matched to satisfy the phase matching condition
68
In an optical fiber with n1 as the refractive index of core and n2 as that of cladding, the critical angle is given by ____
Answer
A. sin⁻¹(n₂/n₁)
69
Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes holography from traditional photography ? i) Holography captures both the intensity and phase of light waves, whereas traditional photography only captures light intensity ii) Holography can be performed using both digital sensors and traditional film, just as traditional photography can use both mediums. iii) Traditional photography uses a reference beam to enhance image quality, while holography does not require any reference beam
Answer
A. Both (i) and (ii)
70
What are the primary causes of attenuation in optical fibers ?
Answer
C. Scattering of light due to material inhomogeneities and absorption by impurities
71
The process of quantifying a learner's knowledge skills or attitude is called
Answer
B. Measurement
72
Which among the following methods of teaching will enhance indirect learning ?
Answer
C. Problem based learning method
73
Most appropriate method of avoiding plagearism in research is
Answer
B. Appropriately citing the source of all data taken from others
74
Choose from the given below options, the one which doesn't belong to graphi aid
Answer
A. Flannel Board
75
Solving a problem by generating knowledge and taking action within the social system in which the problem is located is
Answer
D. Action Research
76
From among the following options, choose the most relevant ethical considerations in research a) Confidentiality b) Voluntary participation c) Free copying from books and journals d) Informed consent e) use of unacceptable research practices
Answer
B. a, b and d
77
Major aim of UGC CARE is
Answer
C. Promotion of high quality research
78
Student centered classroom doesn't mean
Answer
B. teacher autonomy
79
Manipulation and control of variables and randomisation of sample are associated with
Answer
D. Experimental research
80
Out of the given below options, find out the one that is associated with cognitive domain
Answer
D. Creating
81
Given below are two statements Statement 1 : Right to Information Act was passed by the Indian Parliament on 10 May 2005 in order to promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority Statement 2 : National Food Security Act, 2013 provides for coverage of up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population for receiving subsidized food grains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) In the above given statements which of the following is correct
Answer
D. Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
82
Which of the following statement about the election commission of India is NOT true ?
Answer
C. The chief election commissioner is appointed for a tenure of 6 years or until the age of 60, whichever is earlier
83
Which of the following is NOT a word added to the Preamble of Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976 ?
Answer
A. Unity
84
Which power allows the President to return a bill for reconsideration ?
Answer
B. Suspensive veto
85
Consider the following statements about national emergency : 1. According to Article 358, when a proclamation of National Emergency is made, the six fundamental rights under article 19 are automatically suspended 2. The proclamation of emergency must be approved by both the houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue Which of the above statements is/are true ?
Answer
A. Both statement 1 and 2 are true
86
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the provision for a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament mentioned ?
Answer
B. Article 108
87
Which of the following is true about the Prime Minister of India ? i. The Prime Minister is directly elected by the people in a general election. ii. He should have completed his 30 years if he is a member of the Rajya Sabha. iii. The council of ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of Prime Minister. iv. The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the President and is presided over by the Prime Minister v. The Prime Minister serves a fixed term of 5 years without the possibility of re- election. Select the correct option.
Answer
B. ii and iii
88
Match List I with List II. List I List II Constitutional Provisions Source 1. Concurrent List i. British Constitution 2. The idea of single citizenship ii. Ireland 3. Directive Principles of State Policy iii. South Africa 4. Provision for Constitutional Amendment iv. Australia
Answer
D. 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii
89
Consider the following statements about Center-State relationship 1. The Government of India had set up the Sarkaria Commission in June 1973 on Center-State relations. 2. The 7th schedule of Indian Constitution deals with the division of powers between the Union and State Governments. Which of the above statements is/are true ?
Answer
D. Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
90
Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?
Answer
C. 101th Amendment Act, 2016 : Reservations for Economic Weaker Section
91
Among the following statements which is correct about Basel Mission ?
Answer
C. It is a Christian missionary society, originally known as German Missionary society, founded in 1815 and it is based in Basel, Switzerland
92
Among the following statements which one is correct about 'Saraswatheevijayam' ?
Answer
B. It is a Novel written in 1892 by Potheri Kunhambu, which depicts the importance of English Education and how it helps an oppressed individual to succeed in life.
93
Among the following statements which is correct about 'Smarthavicharam' i. This was a ritualistic social trial practiced among Namboodiris for adultery and after the trial the accused women along with the men found involved were excommunicated and expelled from caste. ii. It was a social practice prevalent in Kerala in which Nair widows, who were not following societal rituals expelled from caste and had to appear for a social trial. iii. Kuriyedathu thatri went through this trial and ostracised in 1905. iv. Parvathy Varasyar was the victim of this social custom and later she became a social activist whose struggles led to the abolition of this practice.
Answer
C. Only i and iii
94
Prabhatham is a _______
Answer
A. Malayalam weekly newspaper founded in 1935 and edited by EMS
95
The social reformer Kumaraguru also known as
Answer
C. Poikayil Yohannan
96
Who stopped Suchindram Kaimukku or ordeal of boiling ghee
Answer
B. Swathi Thirunal
97
Among the following choose the correct answer about 'Pattabakki'.
Answer
C. It was the first political drama to be staged in Kerala and it was written by K. Damodaran
98
Kerala Land Reforms Act was introduced in
Answer
B. 1963
99
'Badhiravilapam' is the work of __________
Answer
A. Vallathol
100
Who is the first opposition leader in the Loksabha ?
Answer
C. A.K. Gopalan
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