| Post Name | OPTOMETRIST GR.II - Health Services |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 132/2024 |
| Category Code | 526/2023 |
| Date of Test | 4 October 2024 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The types of cells found in retina are :
Answer
D. Amacrine cells
2
The eye lens is :
Answer
D. Biconvex
3
Nasolacrimal duct open into :
Answer
A. Inferior meatus
4
The junction between Cornea and Sclera is called :
Answer
B. Limbus
5
Which of the following has non-keratinised squamous epithelium with goblet cells?
Answer
D. Conjunctiva
6
Which muscle is responsible for elevation of upper eye lid?
Answer
B. Levator Palpebrae Superioris
7
Which of the following structure is seen above the bony orbit?
Answer
Question Cancelled
8
The fluid between the retina and the lens is called :
Answer
A. Vitreous humour
9
Most common type of optic nerve injury :
Answer
C. Intra Canalicular
10
Snellen’s chart is used to test :
Answer
A. Vision
11
Egyptian ophthalmia is caused by :
Answer
C. Haemophilus aegypticus
12
The leading infectious cause of blindness in developing countries is :
Answer
A. Trachoma
13
Acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by :
Answer
A. Enterovirus 70
14
The most common ocular finding in Malaria is :
Answer
B. Retinal Haemorrhage
15
Unilateral painless chorioretinal granuloma is the most common finding of :
Answer
D. Ocular larva migrans
16
Mycotic keratitis is commonly caused by :
Answer
D. Aspergillus
17
Negative staining is used for demonstration of :
Answer
B. Capsule
18
Grams iodine acts as ___________ in Grams staining.
Answer
C. Mordant
19
Chemical indicator for anaerobic condition in GasPak system is :
Answer
A. Reduced Methylene blue
20
The three components of PCR involves all except :
Answer
D. Blotting
132/2024 4 A
21
Which of the following is the test for visual acuity
Answer
A. Snellen’s chart
22
Factors affecting visual acuity are except :
Answer
Question Cancelled
23
Which of the following denotes a person suffering from partial colour blindness?
Answer
B. Deuteranomaly
24
Site of formation of Aqueous humour is :
Answer
C. Ciliary processes
25
Aqueous humour ultimately drains into episcleral veins through :
Answer
B. Canal of schlemm
26
Complete turn over of Aqueous humour takes place within :
Answer
C. About one hour
27
Abnormal I.O.P. (Intra Ocular Pressure) can be seen in all except :
Answer
C. Conjunctivitis
28
The vertical and horizontal movements of the eyeball made from the mid position of gaze
are called :
Answer
Question Cancelled
29
Physical changes occur in these structures during accommodation except in :
Answer
D. Cornea
30
First and foremost advantage of binocular vision is :
Answer
B. Stereopsis
31
Which of the following drug is used topically (eye ointment) in Herpes simplex (type 1)
keratitis?
Answer
D. Acyclovir
32
Which anti-tuberculosis drug among the following produces retrobulbar neuritis?
Answer
B. Ethambutol
33
Betablocker not used topically for glaucoma :
Answer
C. Celiprolol
34
Glucocorticoid which is not usually given as intravitreal injection :
Answer
A. Prednisolone
35
One of the following not used topically for treatment of glaucoma :
Answer
D. Acetazolamide
36
Which of the following group of ocular hypotensive drugs, does not reduce aqueous
secretion?
Answer
D. Prostaglandins
37
Dipivefrine is
Answer
A. Prodrug of adrenaline
38
Drug not useful in glaucoma is :
Answer
D. Atropine
39
One of the following is not an advantage of topical betablocker over miotics in glaucoma :
Answer
B. Diminution of vision in dim light
40
Least cycloplegic mydriatic among the following is :
Answer
C. Tropicamide
41
Each letter in Snellens chart subtends an angle of how many minutes at nodal point of
eye :
Answer
C. 5
42
The most appropriate reason for testing visual acuity from 6 metres is :
Answer
B. At this distance the rays of light will have very little divergence that it may
be taken as parallel
43
Which of the following tests is preferred to determine visual acuity in pre school
children?
Answer
A. Boek Candy Bead test
44
The following statements about near vision testing are correct except :
Answer
B. Tested in a room with dim light
45
Ishiharas colour vision test is used to detect which type of colour blindness :
Answer
A. Red green colour blindness
46
Tumbling E chart used for testing visual acuity is preferred for :
Answer
C. Both
47
During retinoscopy at one metre if there is no movement of red reflex without any lens, it
indicates that refractive status of the patient is :
Answer
B. Myopia of 1D
48
Which of the following statement is not true regarding retinoscopy?
Answer
C. In static retinoscopy patient fixates on an object at a close distance from both
the eyes
49
During retinoscopy suppose one meridian is neutralized by +4D and meridian at right
angles with +5D at a working distance of 2/3rd metre, then patient’s refractive error
would be :
Answer
C. +2.5D sphere and +1D cylinder
50
Advantages of cycloplegic refraction are all except :
Answer
D. More amount of aberration through peripheral part of refractive media occurs
51
Prerequisite for retinoscopy are all except :
Answer
D. Ophthalmoscope
52
Duochrome test which works on the principle of chromatic aberration is used to :
Answer
C. Refine sphere
53
In myopia, the parallel rays of light coming from infinity with accommodation at rest,
are focused :
Answer
A. In front of the retina
54
Disadvantages of correcting aphakia using spectacles include all except :
Answer
D. Barrel distortion
55
Which of the following changes take place in the eye during accommodation?
Answer
D. Relaxation of lens zonules
132/2024 8 A
56
Which of the following instrument is used to measure near point of accommodation?
Answer
B. RAF rule
57
Which among the following about presbyopia is correct?
Answer
C. In presbyopia there is a decrease in accommodative power of crystalline lens
58
With regard to contact lens which among the following is false?
Answer
A. Base curve is the central anterior curve
59
The following is true about Jacksons cross cylinder :
Answer
B. It is used to check axis of cylinder before power
60
Which among the following is false regarding keratometry?
Answer
C. Javal Schiotz keratometer is based on the principle of constant object size and
variable image size
61
All of the following are true regarding tonometer except :
Answer
C. Schiotz tonometer start with 7.5 gm weight with additional weights to make
it 10 gm and 15 gm
62
Which of the following tests is used for calculating intraocular lens power?
Answer
A. A Scan
63
Which of the following is a type of static perimetry?
Answer
C. Both
64
All are true about Placido disc except :
Answer
C. Suitable for cornea with epithelial defects or stromal ulcers
65
Regarding the calculation of intraocular lens power, which among the following is false?
Answer
A. It is more influenced by error in keratometry measurement than axial length
66
After implantation of intra ocular lens, patient will have clear distance and near vision
by which of the following methods :
Answer
D. All of the above
67
After simple transposition of + 2.00 DS/ – 050 DC 60° the answer obtained is :
Answer
A. + 1.50 DS/ + 050 DC 150°
68
All regarding bifocal glasses are correct except :
Answer
B. Fused bifocals involved combining 2 lens with same refractive index
69
Which of the following is true about cylindrical lenses?
Answer
D. All of the above
70
Regarding astigmatism all are true except :
Answer
C. It is corrected by convex spherical lens
71
The physiological optical defects in human eye includes all except :
Answer
B. Prismatic aberration
72
In Ophthalmology, Prisms are used in :
Answer
D. All of the above
73
Optical condition in which refraction of the two eyes differs in variety and degree is
named as :
Answer
B. Anisometropia
74
Convex lens is used in the treatment of all except :
Answer
A. Keratoconus
75
Astigmatism is a type of :
Answer
B. Curvature ametropia
76
Incident parallel rays come to focus posterior to the light sensitive layer of retina in all
except :
Answer
B. Myopia
77
Sturm’s conoid represents refraction through
Answer
C. Toric surface
78
Misdirected eyelashes are termed as :
Answer
D. Trichiasis
79
The test for measuring the tear secretion is :
Answer
C. Schirmer test
80
Bitot’s spot is seen in :
Answer
B. Vitamin A deficiency
81
Corneal trauma with vegetative matter often leads to :
Answer
B. Fungal corneal ulcer
82
The feature of iridocyclitis include all except :
Answer
Question Cancelled
83
Features of hypermature cataract includes :
Answer
D. All of the above
132/2024 12 A
84
In a patient with total cataract, retina is evaluated by :
Answer
A. Ultrasound
85
Which of the following statements about glaucoma is incorrect?
Answer
C. It is always associated with raised intraocular pressure
86
Investigations needed to diagnose glaucoma include :
Answer
D. All of the above
87
IOP measurement using rapid air pulse to flatten the cornea is done by :
Answer
A. Non contact tonometry
88
The gold standard method of visual field assessment in a case of glaucoma is :
Answer
C. Humphrey field analyser method
89
Typical field defects in primary open angle glaucoma include all except :
Answer
A. Altitudinal field defect
90
The type of glaucoma considered as ‘‘silent thief of sight’’ is :
Answer
C. Primary open angle glaucoma
91
Treatment of glaucoma includes :
Answer
D. All of the above
A 13 132/2024
92
In a case of eye donation cornea is collected within ___________ hours of death.
Answer
B. 6
93
Optical aids used in rehabilitation of low vision patients include all except :
Answer
A. White cane
94
Nowadays, Ophthalmic instruments are sterilized by all except :
Answer
Question Cancelled
95
The initial step in binocular single vision is :
Answer
C. Simultaneous perception
96
The refractive error associated with esotropia is :
Answer
A. Hypermetropia
97
Causes for amblyopia includes all except :
Answer
Question Cancelled
98
Deviation of one eye inferiorly is termed as :
Answer
C. Hypotropia
99
Retained iron foreign body causes :
Answer
A. Siderosis
100
Target diseases identified for VISION 2020 in India includes all except :
Answer
A. Onchocerciasis
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