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Kerala PSC Overseer/ Draftsman Gr I (Electrical) & Plant Engineer (Electrical) Previous Question Paper – 105/2022

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Post NameOverseer/ Draftsman Gr I (Electrical) & Plant Engineer (Electrical)
DepartmentPWD/ Irrigation, Harbour Engineering etc
Question Paper Code105/2022
Category Code198/2020, 377/2020
Date of Test1 November 2022
Medium of QuestionENGLISH
Exam TypeOMR Examination
Total Questions100
1
–––––––––– substances show magnetic properties strongly when subjected to a magnetizing force.
Answer
C. Ferromagnetic
2
Absolute Permittivity of air –––––––––– Farad per metre.
Answer
A. 8.854 Γ— 10–12
3
The power factor of a RLC series circuit at resonance is:
Answer
D. 1
4
–––––––––– provides a method for determining the direction of the induced e.m.f.
Answer
Question Cancelled
5
Let L₁ and Lβ‚‚ be self-inductances, M mutual inductance, φ₁ the flux produced by current I and Ο†β‚‚ the linked flux. The coefficient of coupling K is:
Answer
B. K = M/√(L₁Lβ‚‚)
6
The e.m.f. induced in a straight conductor of length 1 metre, when moved at right angle to a uniform field of 2 Wb/mΒ² at 0.5 m/s, is:
Answer
D. 1 volt
7
An AC voltage wave is expressed as e = 300 sin 314 t, what is its frequency?
Answer
C. 50 Hz
8
Two alternating quantities are added :
Answer
D. Vectorially A 3
9
–––––––––– is an integrating instrument.
Answer
A. Ampere-hour meter
10
In 3 phase power measurement by 2 wattmeter method, one of the wattmeter reads zero. What is the power factor of the load?
Answer
B. 0.5
11
A moving coil instrument has a resistance of 10 Ξ© and shows full-scale deflection for a current of 50 mA. The value of shunt resistance to be connected to measure a current of 100A :
Answer
A. 0.005 Ξ©
12
The maximum load connected in a power sub-circuit of domestic electrical installation :
Answer
C. 3000 watts
13
The size of conductors used in a power cable depends on the :
Answer
D. current to be carried
14
Megger works on the principle of :
Answer
A. Electromagnetic induction
15
With the rise in temperature, the insulation resistivity of a cable :
Answer
A. reduces exponentially
16
The e.m.f. induced in a conductor rotating in a bipolar magnetic field is :
Answer
A. AC
17
Working principle of DC Motor is :
Answer
Question Cancelled
18
The frequency of armature current of an 8 pole DC generator running at 1500 rpm :
Answer
D. 100 Hz 105/2022 4 A
19
In a DC machine sparkless commutation can be achieved by using :
Answer
D. all of the above
20
Which of the following machine having same armature current and field current?
Answer
B. Series
21
The flux of DC motor increases, its speed will :
Answer
C. decrease
22
Ward Leonard speed control is –––––––––– control method.
Answer
A. an armature voltage
23
A 2 kVA transformer has iron loss of 120 W and full load copper loss of 250 W. Its efficiency is maximum when the total loss is :
Answer
C. 240 W
24
Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency nearer to –––––––––– of full load.
Answer
D. 100%
25
In an alternator, the synchronous reactance represents :
Answer
B. leakage reactance and armature reactance
26
Which of the following is the most accurate method to find the voltage regulation of an alternator?
Answer
D. Zero power factor
27
Which of the following is the Pitch factor for a 36 stator slots, 4 poles, alternator of coil span 1 to 7?
Answer
C. 0.866
28
DC shunt motor can run above its rated speed by :
Answer
B. inserting a resistance in its field circuit
29
A 3 phase, 4 pole 400 V, 50 Hz induction motor runs at 1440 rpm. The frequency of rotor induced e.m.f. is :
Answer
D. 2 Hz
30
The volt per turn in the primary winding of a 1000V/250V 50 Hz, single phase transformer is 4V. What is its secondary volt per turn?
Answer
C. 4V
31
The primary of a single phase transformer having turn-ratio 1:2 is connected to 20 V dc supply and its secondary is connected to a 10 ohm resistor, then the current through the resistor is :
Answer
A. 0 A
32
Starting torque of an Induction Motor will be maximum when its slip at :
Answer
Question Cancelled
33
Which of the following methods is used to start a synchronous motor?
Answer
D. All of the above
34
The speed of synchronous motor can be changed by changing its :
Answer
A. supply frequency
35
Which of the following machine can run as synchronous condenser?
Answer
D. Synchronous motor
36
For the same rupturing capacity, the actual current to be interrupted in HRC fuse is :
Answer
B. much less than that of any circuit breaker
37
Which device operates first when a fault occurs in a high voltage transmission line?
Answer
B. Relay
38
An isolator is meant for :
Answer
C. breaking the circuit under no load condition
39
A transmission line has a span of 100 m, weighs 200 kg/km is at the same level. The tension in the conductor is 1000 kg. Then the sag is :
Answer
A. 0.25 m
40
Buchholz relay is
Answer
C. gas actuated relay
41
In three phase system, what is the minimum number of relays used to detect phase to phase faults :
Answer
B. 2
42
Merz Price protection is a type of :
Answer
B. differential protection
43
What is the Short Circuit kVA of a system, if the percentage reactance upto the fault point is 20% and the base kVA is 20,000?
Answer
C. 1,00,000
44
The highest transmission voltage in India is :
Answer
A. 765 kV
45
If 3MW power is to be transmitted over a distance of 30 km, the desirable transmission voltage will be :
Answer
D. 66 kV A 7 105/2022
46
Corona loss can be reduced by the use of hollow conductors because :
Answer
C. for a given cross-section the radius of the conductor is increased
47
The skin effect of a conductor reduces with the increase in :
Answer
B. resistivity of the conductor material
48
If the frequency of a transmission system is changed from 50 Hz to 100 Hz, the string efficiency :
Answer
A. remains unchanged
49
For a medium length transmission line, the constant A is :
Answer
C. equal to constant D
50
Which of the following is neglected while analyzing a short transmission line?
Answer
A. shunt admittance
51
Which expression is used to determine the fusing current of a round wire?
Answer
C. I = Kd³⁄²
52
IS code of Practice for earthing is :
Answer
A. 3043-1987
53
Which of the following principle is/are employed for the design of street light installation? (i) The diffusion principle (ii) The specular reflection principle (iii) The scattering principle
Answer
C. Only (i) and (ii)
54
The factor indicating the ratio of lumens reaching the working plane to the total lumen given out by the lamp is :
Answer
D. Utilization factor
55
What is the criteria for deciding number of sub circuits connected to a supply system as per number of points and maximum connected load?
Answer
B. 10 points or 800 watts
56
The IS code of practice for interior illumination is :
Answer
D. IS 3646:1992
57
Which of the following gas is added with metallic sodium to start discharge in a Sodium Vapour lamp?
Answer
B. Neon
58
A lamp has a mean spherical candle power of 20. What is the total flux of light from the lamp?
Answer
D. 251.2 lumen
59
One candle power equal to :
Answer
A. 4Ο€ lumen
60
Which of the following IE rule gives importance to the periodical inspection and testing of consumer’s installation?
Answer
C. IE Rule 46
61
The range of input values over which there is no change in output value is referred as :
Answer
B. Dead zone
62
The errors occurred while taking electrical measurements due to human mistakes is known as :
Answer
A. Gross error
63
Which among the following is an integrating type instrument?
Answer
D. Energy meter
64
If fluid friction damping is used in a measuring instrument then the meter must be kept –––––––––– position during measurement.
Answer
B. Vertical
65
The Duddell’s Oscillograph is a –––––––––– type of instrument.
Answer
A. Vibration galvanometer
66
The controlling torque produced by phosphor bronze springs with spring constant 4 in a moving coil instrument and the pointer deflects through an angle 90 degrees is :
Answer
D. 2Ο€ Nm
67
Which of the following method is used for measuring earth resistance?
Answer
B. Fall of potential method
68
Which of the following device is used for the measurement of medium resistance?
Answer
C. Wheatstone Bridge
69
The signal whose amplitude is measured using a CRO is applied to :
Answer
A. Vertical deflection plates
70
Which of the following device is used for the measurement of pressure?
Answer
C. Bellows
71
Which of the following statement is/are correct about NPN Transistor? (i) The Minority carriers in a NPN transistor is positively charged holes. (ii) The Majority carriers in a NPN transistor is positively charged holes. (iii) The Minority carriers in a NPN transistor is negatively charged electrons. (iv) The Majority carriers in a NPN transistor is negatively charged electrons.
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iv)
72
When a Signal is applied to Base of a common emitter transistor circuit the signal is transferred from –––––––––– to –––––––––– of the circuit.
Answer
D. Low resistance to high resistance
73
When a transistor is operated in common collector configuration then its voltage gain obtained is?
Answer
A. Less than 1
74
Which of the following statement is/are correct about a common base transistor configuration? (i) A Common base transistor configuration provide voltage gain without current gain. (ii) A Common base transistor configuration provide impedance matching at high frequencies. (iii) A Common base transistor configuration provide large power gain without impedance matching.
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
75
The amplifier which transfers maximum power from source to load in common base configuration, It is known as :
Answer
C. Buffer amplifier
76
Which of the following process is utilized for achieving constant operating point in a transistor amplifier?
Answer
B. Stabilization
77
In a single stage common emitter amplifier the phase shift between input and output signal is –––––––––– degrees.
Answer
D. 180
78
The power amplifier in which the collector current flows only during the positive half cycle of the input signal then it is
Answer
B. Class B amplifier
79
Which of the following statement is/are correct about a Hartley oscillator? (i) The tank circuit is made up of a capacitor connected across midpoint earthed series inductors. (ii) The tank circuit is made up of an inductor connected across midpoint earthed series capacitors. (iii) The tank circuit is made up of a quartz crystal connected across midpoint earthed series inductors.
Answer
A. Only (i)
80
Which of the following circuit is associated with the Barkhausen’s Criterion?
Answer
C. Oscillator
81
The ratio of differential voltage gain to the common mode voltage gain of a differential amplifier is known as :
Answer
B. CMRR
82
When the gain of an operational amplifier is set to unity then it is called :
Answer
A. the voltage follower
83
The digital circuit that converts decimal digits into Binary code is known as :
Answer
C. Encoder
84
The binary equivalent of decimal number 109 is :
Answer
B. 1101101
85
The hexadecimal equivalent of binary number 11110011000.1110 is :
Answer
Question Cancelled
86
Which of the following device can be expressed as two transistor model?
Answer
C. SCR
87
The PN junction of a Schottky diode is made of :
Answer
A. Aluminium and Silicon
88
Which of the following statement is/are true for an effective method to SCR turn off? (i) Reduce anode to cathode voltage below holding current and remove the charge by applying reverse voltage across anode to cathode. (ii) Reduce gate to cathode voltage below latching current and remove the charge by applying reverse voltage across gate to cathode. (iii) Reduce anode to cathode voltage below holding current and remove the charge by applying reverse voltage across gate to cathode.
Answer
D. Only (i)
89
Which of the following device is most suitable for speed control of a single phase induction motor?
Answer
D. TRIAC
90
Which of the following device exhibits negative resistance characteristics?
Answer
C. UJT
91
The Dual converter provides a maximum of –––––––––– operation.
Answer
B. four quadrant
92
Which of the following triggering method is suitable for varying firing angle of SCR from zero to 180 degrees?
Answer
D. RC triggering
93
Which of the following device is used to prevent negative voltage to appear across the R-L load in thyristor converter?
Answer
C. Reverse biased diode
94
The 8051 microcontroller has –––––––––– number of 8 bit I/O ports.
Answer
A. 4
95
Which of the following instruction is used to copy the contents of memory whose address is in register R1 to the accumulator?
Answer
C. MOV A,@R1
96
The number of Special Function register in 8051 is :
Answer
B. 21
97
The PCON register in 8051 Microcontroller indicates :
Answer
A. Power control
98
Which among the following is normally not used for programming in PLC?
Answer
D. Machine language
99
Which of the following I/O ports in 8051 are used as address and data transfer for external memory?
Answer
B. Port 0 and 2
100
The timer of 8051 will function as 16 bit timer in :
Answer
D. Mode 1 β€”β€”β€”β€”β€”β€”β€”β€” 105/2022 14 A

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