| Post Name | Pharmacist Grade II 012/2024,335/2024 |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 019/2025 |
| Category Code | 012/2024 |
| Date of Test | 12 February 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Sterilization by dry heat is effected usually by heating at :
Answer
C. 160°C for 2 hour
2
Microorganisms that are very resistant to heat treatments are said to be :
Answer
D. thermoduric
3
Which among the following is not an example of bacteria proof filter?
Answer
B. Meta filter
4
Method of incorporation of disintegrants in tablets is :
Answer
C. in parts before and after granulation
5
Melting point of materials influence which tablet defect?
Answer
A. picking
6
Capacity of the cylindrical vessel present in tablet dissolution test apparatus is usually :
Answer
A. 1 litre
7
Coacervation phase separation is a method used for which process?
Answer
B. Microencapsulation
8
Which source of sterilization is produced by passing of a high voltage through mercury
vapor in evacuated glass tube?
Answer
D. UV rays
A 3
9
Preservatives used in the formulation of capsule shell of hard gelatin capsule :
Answer
C. paraben
10
The moisture content of hard gelatin capsule shell is usually :
Answer
A. 10 to 15%
11
In the formulation of a suspension electrolytes are used commonly as :
Answer
A. flocculating agent
12
Which of the following solids does not require a suspending agent when formulated into
a suspension?
Answer
C. light kaolin
13
Surfactants with HLB value between 3 and 6 favor the formation of which type of
emulsion?
Answer
B. w/o
14
Optimum phase volume ratio for obtaining a stable emulsion is :
Answer
D. between 30 – 60%
15
Sodium alkyl sulfosuccinate is used for which purpose in a dentifrice?
Answer
B. detergent
16
Which among the following is a permanent hair removal method for body hair?
Answer
A. electrolysis
17
Coulter counter is used for which evaluation test for parenteral preparation?
Answer
D. Clarity test
019/2025 4 A
18
Which is not preferred as a vehicle among the following for the formulation of
parenterals?
Answer
A. liquid paraffin
19
A popular vehicle which is isotonic with lachrymal fluid?
Answer
C. 1.9% boric acid
20
Which is an ingredient avoided in the formulation of ophthalmic ointment?
Answer
B. white soft paraffin
21
Which of the following statement regarding sodium hydroxide is correct?
Answer
D. All of the above
22
Borate buffers are contraindicated for :
Answer
B. Parenteral solutions
23
The official solution of Hydrogen Peroxide in the I.P. is :
Answer
A. solution containing 6% w/v of Hydrogen peroxide
24
Aqueous salt of Sodium Nitrite is :
Answer
A. Alkaline to litmus
25
Povidone – Iodine belongs to :
Answer
D. Iodophor compound
26
The chemical formula for Ammoniated Mercury is :
Answer
A. NH2 HgCl
27
Ammonium Chloride may be used as :
Answer
D. All of the above
28
Which of the following statement about Antimony Potassium Tartrate is true?
Answer
D. All of the above
29
Calcium Gluconate can be administered by :
Answer
D. All of the above
30
All of the following are also known as “Chlorinated Lime” except :
Answer
A. Slaked Lime
31
Chemical name of Dapsone is :
Answer
C. 4,4' – Diamino diphenyl sulfone
32
All of the following are Antifungal Antibiotics except :
Answer
B. Tolnaftate
33
Which of the following statement about proguanil is true?
Answer
D. All of the above
34
Carbenicillin is an example of :
Answer
C. Anti-pseudomonal Penicillin
35
5-Fluorouracil is used in the treatment of :
Answer
D. All of the above
36
Azathioprine is a heterocyclic derivative of :
Answer
B. 6-Mercaptopurine
37
Mannitol is mainly used by intravenous infusion as :
Answer
C. Osmotic diuretic
38
Which one of the following can be administered orally?
Answer
D. Salbutamol
39
Which of the following is a monoamine oxidase inhibiting antidepressant?
Answer
B. Phenelzine
40
Which of the following is NOT a benzodiazepine derivative?
Answer
D. Meprobamate
41
Which among the following is an isoquinoline alkaloid?
Answer
B. Emetine
42
The toxic substance present in Nutmeg is :
Answer
C. Myristicine
43
Which among the following is a
Answer
D. Aloin
44
The oil which is used for the production of Vanillin?
Answer
A. Clove oil
45
Stomata present in Digitalis purpurea :
Answer
B. Ranumculaceous
46
Which of the following not posses narcotic activity?
Answer
A. Narcotine
47
Which among the following is known as ‘St. Antony’s Fire’?
Answer
D. Ergot
48
The bitter glycoside present in Cinchona is :
Answer
D. Quinovin
49
Which among the following is used as an anti-inflammatory agent?
Answer
C. Papain
50
Cremocarp of Coriander fruit contains :
Answer
B. 4 vittae
51
Which of the following drug is administered intravenously to induce anaesthesia?
Answer
C. Thiopentone sodium
52
An adverse effect of Penicillin is :
Answer
D. Hypersensitivity reaction
53
Which among the following is not a loop diuretic?
Answer
B. Indapamide
54
An adrenergic drug used as bronchodilator is :
Answer
A. Terbutaline
55
The classification under which glibenclamide belongs :
Answer
A. Sulphonyl ureas
56
An example for intermediate acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent is :
Answer
B. Cisatracurium
57
Which among the following is an autocoid?
Answer
D. Histamine
58
Antithrombotic dose of Aspirin is :
Answer
C. 75-150 mg/day
59
Which of the following drug produce ‘‘on-off effect’’ on long term therapy?
Answer
D. Levodopa
60
Therapeutic dose of isoniazid for adults is :
Answer
B. 300 mg
61
Obsolescent item is :
Answer
A. It is going out of use, but not yet completely unusable
62
What is lead time?
Answer
C. The average time for placing an order and receiving the item
63
Buffer stock items means :
Answer
C. The quantity of items kept for unfrozen demands
64
Re-order level means :
Answer
A. The level at which new order to be placed
65
The carrying cost includes the following except :
Answer
D. The cost incurred by the purchase department
66
ABC analysis of inventory means :
Answer
C. Always better control
67
The major legal requirements of procurement of drugs include :
Answer
D. Drugs and Cosmetic Act
68
The following statement is not correct about open tender :
Answer
C. Open tenders used only in those cases where the value of the tender is
moderate
69
In ABC Analysis A item covers :
Answer
A. 10% of total inventory
70
Perpetual inventory system means :
Answer
B. A system of recording the store balance after every receipt and issue
71
Schedule FF is related with :
Answer
C. Ophthalmic preparation
72
The objective of Pharmacy Act 1948 except :
Answer
B. Regulating the stock and sale of drugs in pharmacies
73
As per schedule P sodium valproate tab should be stored in/at :
Answer
C. A cool dry place away from heat and direct light
74
Amoxycillin clavulanic acid tab comes under :
Answer
B. Schedule H
75
The Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in the year :
Answer
D. 1954
76
As per Narcotic drugs and psychotropic substance Act rules a person cultivates or sell,
transport of Cannabis on first conviction is :
Answer
B. Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years or fine up to Rs. 1 lakhs
77
Schedule –————— of Drugs and Cosmetic Act contains a list of diseases and ailments
which a drug may not claim to prevent or cure.
Answer
C. J
78
The Drugs and Cosmetic Act was passed with main objective to :
Answer
B. Regulate import, manufacture distribution sale of drugs and cosmetics
79
In State Pharmacy Council how many members are elected from amongst themselves by
registered pharmacists of the state?
Answer
C. Six
80
For licence granted to sell by wholesale drugs, specified C and C(1) drugs form no is :
Answer
D. 21B
81
The safest and the most efficient means of delivering drugs from the pharmacy to the
patients :
Answer
A. Unit dose drug distribution system
82
Model essential medicine list was prepared by :
Answer
C. WHO
83
One of the disadvantage of floor stock system :
Answer
D. Inadequate supervision of drug stocked
84
For the calculation of the parameter economic order quantity, we are not using :
Answer
B. Cost for pain and sufferings
85
Water for injection is prepared by :
Answer
A. Distillation
86
In sterile manufacturing, the solute benzalkonium chloride is used in the concentration
of –————— percentage.
Answer
C. 0.01%
87
Type I borosilicate glass container for parenteral preparation is composed of :
Answer
D. Silicon dioxide and boric oxide
88
Indexing and abstracting sources are induced in which type of literature in Drug
Information :
Answer
B. Secondary
89
Bandage cloth consists of cotton cloth of plain weave made from machine spun yarn of
suitable count to comply with a bleached count between –————— for a warp.
Answer
A. 20 tex and 25 tex
90
The member secretary in PTC :
Answer
D. Hospital Pharmacists
91
The category of drugs which induces peptic ulcer?
Answer
B. NSAID’s
92
The test which is used to detect antibody on cell surface :
Answer
C. Coomb’s test
93
The marker used to detect acute myocardial infarction :
Answer
D. Creatinine phosphokinase
A 13 019/2025
94
Interaction of MAO inhibitors with tyramine will result in :
Answer
A. Hypertensive crisis
95
Potassium salts will not interact with :
Answer
D. Ranitidine
96
The consequence of interaction between NSAID’s and methotrexate is :
Answer
C. Increased toxicity of methotrexate
97
The teratogenicity of indomethacin will result in :
Answer
B. Premature closure of ductus arteriosus
98
Antidot of Acetaminophen :
Answer
A. Acetyl cysteine
99
Arsenic poisoning can be treated by :
Answer
D. Dimercaprol
100
If a structurally different drug provides the same therapeutic or clinical response as
another drug, the two are considered as being :
Answer
B. Therapeutic equivalent
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