| Post Name | POLICE CONSTABLE (Telecommunication) |
|---|---|
| Department | KERALA POLICE SERVICE |
| Question Paper Code | 089/2022 |
| Category Code | 337/2020 |
| Date of Test | 20 September 2022 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following is the work of Vallathol Narayana Menon ?
Answer
A. Badhira Vilapam
2
Which one of the following is wrongly matched ?
Answer
B. Ulloor S. Parameswara Iyer – Vrithamanjari
3
Which of the following is correctly matched ?
Answer
D. C. P. Achutha Menon – Vidya Vinodini
4
Who among the following is the author of ‘Pattabakki’ ?
Answer
C. K. Damodaran
5
Which is the correct chronological order of the following events ?
i. Channar Agitation
ii. Temple Entry Proclamation
iii. Vaikom Satyagraha
iv. Guruvayur Satyagraha
Answer
A. i, iii, iv, ii
6
Consider following statements :
i. The progressive intellectuals like Kesari Balakrishna Pillai had supported the
Abstention Movement.
ii. The Abstention Movement of 1932 was started in Kochi.
iii. The Abstention Movement stood for achieving Responsible Government in
Travancore.
iv. The leaders of Abstention Movement and others jointly formed the Travancore
State Congress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer
C. i, iii, iv
7
Identify the wrongly matched pair :
Answer
A. T. K. Madhavan – Sivayogavilasam
8
Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
Answer
A. Basel Evangelical Mission
9
The book ‘Kerala Simham’ is written by
Answer
C. K. M. Panikkar
10
The slogan ‘American Model Arabikadalil’ is related to
Answer
D. Punnapra Vayalar Struggle
11
Consider following statements :
i. The idea of an Indian Constituent Assembly was put forward by M. N. Roy in the
Newspaper ‘Indian Patriot’.
ii. The Cripps Mission was appointed in 1946.
iii. In 1934, the Indian National Congress officially demanded for a Constituent
Assembly.
iv. The Constituent Assembly was set up as per the recommendation of the Cabinet
Mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
12
Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Preamble of Indian
Constitution ?
i. Preamble is the Soul of the Constitution.
ii. Preamble provides a key to understanding and interpretation of the Constitution.
iii. Preamble speaks about the ideal and philosophy of the Constitution.
iv. The Preamble contains the fundamental principles.
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii, iii and iv)
13
Which one of the following is not a common feature of federalism in U.S.A. and India ?
Answer
C. Two sets of Judicial Organisations
14
Right to Education has been placed in the Indian Constitution under
Answer
B. 86th Amendment Act
15
Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Duties of the citizen ?
Answer
A. Article 51 A
16
Which one of the following is not a member of the QUAD group ?
Answer
A. France
17
Which Five Year Plan linked ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services) to Anganavadi
Centres ?
Answer
A. Tenth Five Year Plan
18
Who is the 29th Chief of the Indian Army ?
Answer
C. Manoj Pande
19
Venue of the 14th BRICS Summit 2022
Answer
D. Beijing
20
The first woman cricketer to appear in six cricket world cups
Answer
B. Mithali Raj
21
88-108 MHz frequency range is used for transmitting
Answer
C. FM
22
Line-of-sight communication uses
Answer
C. Space wave
23
100% modulation is produced in AM when
Answer
A. Carrier amplitude equal to signal amplitude
24
In superheterodyne broadcast receiver the frequency of local oscillator is
Answer
A. Higher than the incoming signal
25
In frequency modulation
Answer
D. All of the above
26
In AM transmission the frequency which is not transmitted is
Answer
D. Audio frequency
27
Pre-emphasis circuit is placed
Answer
B. Before modulation circuit
28
Demodulation occurs in
Answer
C. Radio receiver
29
In FM the output noise can be further decreased by
Answer
B. Increasing frequency deviation
30
In a television the aspect ratio is defined as
Answer
A. The ratio of raster width to height
31
Most commonly used antenna type with TV receiver is
Answer
A. Yagi antenna
32
In case of Indian TV system the difference between video IF and sound IF is
Answer
B. 5.5 MHz
33
In television video transmitter the type of amplitude modulation used is
Answer
C. VSB
34
The Shadow mask in colour picture tube is used to
Answer
B. Ensure that each primary colour beam hits only its own dots
35
The colour TV system adopted in India is
Answer
A. PAL system
36
Balun in a TV receiver is located
Answer
B. Between feeder and receiver
37
In colour TV receiver colour killer circuit
Answer
C. Cuts off the Chroma stage during monochrome reception
38
Interlacing is used in TV frames to
Answer
B. Avoid flicker
39
In RGB colour model used in TV, complementary colour of green is
Answer
D. Magenta
40
A degaussing coil in colour television is used for
Answer
B. Demagnetising colour picture tube
41
Which of the phenomenon caused, when Radio waves travel in two or more paths during
propagation and produce slowly-changing phase differences between signals at the
receiving end
Answer
A. Fading
42
The region between the far end of ground waves received to the nearest point where the
sky waves returns to earth is called as
Answer
C. Skip zone
43
The mechanism that causes the electromagnetic waves to return back to earth by anyone
of layers of ionosphere is
Answer
B. Only Refraction
44
60 percentage of modulation is given to the carrier of an AM signal that has power of
1000 watts. Calculate the power in lower sideband.
Answer
C. 90 watts
45
The major advantage of frequency modulation over amplitude modulation is
Answer
D. Reception is less noisy
46
Phase locked loop can be used as
Answer
B. FM demodulator
47
Calculate the dissipated power of a 91% efficient antenna if the transmitted power is 15.4 W.
Answer
B. 1.38 W
48
Due to smaller dimensions of helix compared to wavelength which mode of radiations
occur in Helical antenna ?
Answer
C. Normal
49
An antenna has 40 � antenna resistance and 60 � radiation resistance. Calculate the
efficiency of antenna.
Answer
B. 60%
50
A pulse amplitude modulated signal can be detected by using
Answer
B. Low pass filter
51
Under which of the following condition aliasing takes place ?
Answer
A. Sampling signal frequency less than Nyquist rate
52
If the synchronization between the transmitter and receiver falls which of the following
pulse systems would be affected ?
Answer
C. PPM
53
If the radius of the split cell is 50% of the radius of the original cell, the coverage area of
the split cell is _________ the coverage area of the original cell.
Answer
C. One fourth of
54
Which among the following is the decentralized hand-off protocol and distributes the
hand-off decision process ?
Answer
B. Mobile assisted hand off
55
The output of the vertical amplifier applied to the yoke in a TV receiver consists of
Answer
D. A saw tooth current
56
Which among the following optical devices allows light to pass through them in only one
direction ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
57
In voltage source inverters, the amplitude of the output voltage is
Answer
A. Independent of the load
58
What is the measured unit of UPS output rating ?
Answer
C. Volt ampere
59
Which among the following is the application of ICT for delivering government services
to citizens with quality and transparency ?
Answer
C. E-Governance
60
Name the authority competent to issue license to possess wireless telegraphy apparatus
in India.
Answer
A. Telegraph authority constituted under Indian Telegraph Act, 1885
61
If two lamps of 100 w and 40 w are connected in parallel across a 220 volt ac supply
Answer
Question Cancelled
62
During continuity test, a dead short in an installation indicated in a meggar by _________
reading.
Answer
A. zero reading
63
How many free electrons will move through a conductor for one ampere current in one
second ?
Answer
C. 6.24 × 1018
64
The power dissipation in a pure inductor is
Answer
A. zero
65
If a choke is not connected to an a.c. tube circuit then the tube is
Answer
B. will get fused
66
At very high frequencies, the parallel RL circuit behalves as
1. a pure capacitive circuit
2. a pure resistive circuit
3. a pure RL circuit
4. a pure inductive circuit
Answer
D. 2 only
67
In delta connected load, if one resistor is removed the power will become
Answer
D. two-third
68
The form factor is the ratio of
Answer
C. r.m.s. value to average value
69
Low retentivity materials are suitable for making
Answer
D. temporary magnet
70
The relative permeability of a magnetic material depends on the
1. flux
2. type of material
3. type of magnetizing force
4. retentivity.
Answer
A. 2 only
71
A material slightly repelled by a magnet are called
Answer
D. diamagnetic material
72
The process of magnetizing steel is difficult because
Answer
B. it has low permeability
73
The transformer oil used in a transformer provides
1. cooling and insulation
2. insulation and conduction
3. cooling and lubrication
4. insulation and cooling
Answer
B. both 1 and 4
74
Which of the following is incorrect ?
1. Meggar — for checking insulation resistance
2. Lux meter — measure the amount of amplitude in a work space
3. Clamp meter — resistance
4. Tachometer — revolution per minute
Answer
D. both 2 and 3
75
Lead sheath wiring should not be installed near alkaline natured places
Answer
A. statement is correct
76
The winding used for neutralizing the cross magnetising effect in dc generator is
Answer
C. compensating winding
77
The pole flux of a dc generator reduced due to
Answer
C. demagnetizing effect of armature reaction
78
The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is
Answer
Question Cancelled
79
For the measurement of slip in 3 phase induction motor by stroboscopic method the no.
of white and black segment is
Answer
A. both are equal
80
The causes for producing sparking at the brushes in a d.c. machine is
1. open coil in the armature
2. defective pole shoe
3. incorrect brush spring pressure
4. defective interpoles.
Answer
B. 1, 3, 4 are correct
81
Second generation computers are made of
Answer
C. Transistors
82
Choose the odd one out.
Answer
B. Digital computer
83
A register that keeps track of next instruction to be executed
Answer
D. Program counter
84
Which of the following is used to scan the document containing text ?
Answer
A. Optical character recognition
85
An Enhanced Graphics Adapter display has a resolution of __________ pixels.
Answer
B. 640 × 350
86
LCD stands for
Answer
D. Liquid Crystal Display
87
Printer which follow CMYK colour process
Answer
A. Ink-jet printer
88
Fastest memory in computer system
Answer
B. Cache
89
Which of the following is a type of optical storage ?
Answer
D. DVD
90
Latest intel core processor
Answer
B. Core i9
91
Core of Linux operating system is
Answer
A. Kernel
92
Which of these is not an operating system ?
Answer
C. Pascal
93
Which of the following is not an application in MS-Office ?
Answer
D. DOS
94
Combine name and address with standard document is called
Answer
A. Mail merge
95
Shortcut key to select entire document
Answer
C. Ctrl + A
96
DHCP Server provides __________ to the client.
Answer
B. IP address
97
Which of the protocol used in Transport layer of TCP/IP model ?
Answer
C. UDP
98
Hardware address is known as
Answer
A. Physical address
99
Which of the following allows user to view a webpage ?
Answer
D. Internet Browser
100
Domain name converted into IP address with the help of
Answer
C. DNS
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