| Post Name | Priority Sector Officer - Kerala State Co Operative Bank Ltd |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 120/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 432/2023 |
| Date of Test | 26 November 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Match List I with List II List I List II (i) Ethylene (a) Closure of stomata (ii) Cytokinin (b) Fruit ripening (iii) ABA (c) Stem elongation (iv) GA (d) Cell division Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer
B. (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
2
Match List I with List II List I List II (i) Sree Reksha (a) Triploid cassava variety (ii) Sree Pavithra (b) Resistant to cassava mosaic (iii) Nidhi (c) High K eļ¬ciency (iv) Sree Apoorva (d) Early tapioca variety Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer
A. (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
3
Under NPOP which of the following inputs are permitted in organic farming (i) Tobacco decoction (ii) Limestone (iii) Human excrement (iv) Magnesium sulphate Choose the correct answer from the following options given below
Answer
D. (ii) and (iv) only
4
Vector of coconut root (wilt) disease (i) Pentalonia nigronervosa (ii) Stephanitis typica (iii) Bemisia tabaci (iv) Proutista moesta Choose the correct answer from the following options given below
Answer
C. (iv) and (ii) only
5
Which of the following insect pests lay eggs in soil
Answer
A. Aulacophora spp
6
Given below are two statements Statement (I) : Compared to controlled atmosphere storage, modiļ¬ed atmospheric storage is more expensive. Statement (II): Modiļ¬ed atmospheric storage requires precise adjustment of the gas composition. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Answer
B. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false
7
As per FSSAI standards jam, jellies and marmalades should contain a minimum of
Answer
D. 45% fruit content
8
Which of the following trees can be used to impart mobility in gardens (i) Araucaria cookii (ii) Polyalthia logifolia (iii) Mimusops elengi (iv) Lagerstroemia ļ¬os-reginae Choose the correct answer from the following options given below
Answer
D. (iv) only
9
The lead agency for implementing eNAM is
Answer
B. SFAC
10
Which of the following is a secondary function/s of marketing (i) Warehousing (ii) Banking (iii) Grading (iv) Financing Choose the correct answer from the following options given below
Answer
B. (i), (iii) and (iv) only
11
Which of the following statements are true (i) Size of land holding is positively correlated with marketable surplus (ii) Family size is positively correlated with marketable surplus (iii) Marketable surplus is higher for non-food crops (iv) Marketable surplus is inversely related to the level of production in a farm Choose the correct answer from the following options given below
Answer
A. (i) and (iii) only
12
Which of the following herbicide is eļ¬ective against Echinochloa spp.
Answer
B. Cyhalofop butyl
13
Which of the following statements are correct (i) During El Nino there will be a rise in sea surface temperature in Paciļ¬c Ocean (ii) El Nino can lead to heavy rainfall in Southern Unites States (iii) During El Nino there will be weakening of trade winds (iv) Year 2023 was an El Nino year Choose the correct answer from the following options given below
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
14
Match List I with List II List I List II (i) Phosphorous deļ¬ciency (a) Necrosis on leaf edges (ii) Potassium deļ¬ciency (b) Cracking of fruits (iii) Boron deļ¬ciency (c) Interveinal chlorosis of lower leaves (iv) Magnesium deļ¬ciency (d) Purple discoloration of leaves Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer
D. (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
15
Which of the following Nendran clones have the highest crop duration?
Answer
C. Attunendran
16
Match List I with List II List I List II (i) Kerasulabha (a) Coconut variety suited for rainfed conditions (ii) Chandrasankara (b) Dual purpose coconut variety (iii) Kalpaprathibha (c) Coconut variety for root (wilt) aļ¬ected areas (iv) Kalpamithra (d) Exotic variety of coconut Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer
C. (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
17
Among the following types, which one is not a furrow opener
Answer
C. Roller type
18
Which material is used for making tines of a cultivator?
Answer
D. Carbon steel
19
Which is not an advantage of electrostatic spraying?
Answer
B. Top leaves get more chemical deposition than lower leaves
20
A thresher causes more seed damage if
Answer
D. Cylinder speed is increased
21
A fuel cell is a device in which
Answer
A. Chemical energy is converted into electricity
22
Bio-gas consist of only
Answer
B. Methane and carbon dioxide
23
Simpson's rule applies to the computation of
Answer
B. Area
24
The mass curve of rainfall is
Answer
B. Plot of cumulative rainfall vs. time
25
RUSLE is used for the estimation of
Answer
C. Soil loss
26
The type of spillway used whenever a channel is to be brought down a steep slope
Answer
B. Chute spillway
27
The electrical resistivity surveying method is used for
Answer
C. Groundwater prospecting
28
Darcy Weisbach equation is used for the estimation of
Answer
C. Friction loss in pipes
29
The type of pump used for drainage pumping in Kuttanad
Answer
D. Propeller pump
30
Which of the following thermodynamic properties of moist air is not given by the psychrometric chart?
Answer
C. Entropy
31
Scalping in unit operations of agricultural processing refers to
Answer
C. Removal of few large particles in an initial process
32
Which is not a compressor type used in refrigeration?
Answer
A. Axial
33
According to FSSAI regulations high fat cream should have minimum of ______% fat.
Answer
C. 60
34
Milk minus fat globules and casein micelles is known as
Answer
A. Milk serum
35
Renneting enzymes split the Phe-Met bond between residues 105 and 106 of _______ casein.
Answer
C. Kappa
36
The concentration of diļ¬erent tastes (relative strength) that matched 1%______ is called Gust.
Answer
D. Sucrose
37
Pressure in a liquid is a function of _________
Answer
D. Both (2) and (3)
38
A system which is thermally insulated at its boundaries such that it is unable to exchange heat energy with its surroundings is called ______
Answer
C. Adiabatic system
39
Latent heat of vaporization is the amount of heat absorbed to evaporate ______ kg of water at its boiling point, without change in temperature.
Answer
A. 1 kg
40
Isoelectric point of casein is ______ pH
Answer
C. 4.6
41
Rosalic acid test is used for the detection of ______ in milk.
Answer
B. Neutralisers
42
As per FSSAI standards double toned milk should contain minimum of _______% (m/m) SNF.
Answer
C. 9.0
43
Sweet curdling in cream is caused by
Answer
Question Cancelled
44
A fermented milk product made from mares milk by combined acid and alcohol fermentation ______
Answer
B. Koumiss
45
ISO standard for food safety and management system is _______
Answer
C. ISO 22000
46
Example for a draught purpose Indian breed
Answer
D. Amritmahal
47
A perennial grass that can withstand waterlogging and long term ļ¬ooding
Answer
B. Para grass
48
Plant operating eļ¬ciency may be deļ¬ned as the ability to produce the desired products with minimum ______ without sacriļ¬cing the workers' welfare.
Answer
D. all of these
49
Which of the following statement is correct about a subset of solely livestock production system (i) Livestock systems in which more than 10% of dry matter fed to animals comes from crop byproducts or stubble or more than 10% of total value of production comes from non-livestock farming activities. (ii) Landless livestock production systems in which less than 10 percent of the dry matter fed to animals is farm-produced and in which annual average stocking rates are above ten livestock units per hectare of agricultural land. (iii) Grassland-based livestock production systems in which more than 10 percent of the dry matter fed to animals is farm-produced and in which annual average stocking rates are less than ten livestock unit per hectare of agricultural land.
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iii)
50
The home tract of most of the important cattle and buļ¬alo breeds in India is
Answer
C. Dry Northern region
51
The ļ¬oor space requirement for down calvers is
Answer
D. Covered area and open paddock
52
As per the Planning Commission set up by the Government of India in 1950, which of the following are the reasons for the failure of early extension eļ¬orts: (i) Most of the schemes were of short duration (ii) The activities were not properly planned and coordinated (iii) Initiatives came from the people's side and not from the Government (iv) Some basic problems like land tenure, rural credit, etc. remained untouched Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer
C. Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
53
Which of the following is the feature of extension education?
Answer
Question Cancelled
54
Arrange the steps of the innovation-decision process in the correct order (i) Knowledge stage (ii) Decision stage (iii) Persuasion stage (iv) Conļ¬rmation stage (v) Implementation stage Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer
A. (i), (iii), (ii), (v), (iv)
55
Which among the following statements is false? (i) Normal distribution is a limiting case of binomial distribution when nāā and neither p (probability of success) nor q (probability of failure) is very small. (ii) Normal distribution is a limiting case of Poisson distribution when its mean is large. (iii) The mean of a normally distributed population lies at the centre of its normal curve. (iv) Diļ¬erent normal distributions are possible for a given pair of values for mean and standard deviation.
Answer
D. (iv)
56
Characters of biological interest or economic importance which vary in a discontinuous manner but are not inherited in a simple Mendelian manner are called _______
Answer
C. Threshold traits
57
The strength of selection is expressed as the _______ which is the proportionate reduction in the gametic contribution of a particular genotype compared with a standard genotype, usually the most favoured.
Answer
A. Coeļ¬cient of selection
58
Which international treaty focuses on climate change mitigation? (i) Kyoto Protocol (ii) Paris Agreement (iii) Montreal Protocol (iv) Basel Convention
Answer
B. Only (ii)
59
Which HACCP principle or principles focuses on establishing a planned sequence of measurements or observations to assess whether a CCP is under control? (i) Establish corrective actions (ii) Establish monitoring procedures (iii) Establish veriļ¬cation procedures (iv) Conduct a hazard analysis
Answer
C. Only (ii)
60
Which of the following conditions observed during post mortem inspection would warrant immediate condemnation of the entire carcass? (i) Mild bruising (ii) Focal necrosis (iii) Severe icterus (iv) Anthrax
Answer
A. Only (iii) and (iv)
61
What is the main advantage of blast freezing of meat products compared to slow freezing? (i) Lower energy consumption (ii) Smaller ice crystal formation, reducing damage to muscle ļ¬bers (iii) Thermal shock to the microbes is more (iv) Increased weight of the meat
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
62
Which of the following animals is known to have a zonary placenta?
Answer
B. Elephants
63
What is the recommended maximum level of butyric acid in silage to ensure quality?
Answer
A. < 0.2%
64
Constant occurrence of disease in a population or usual frequency of occurrence of disease is knwon as
Answer
B. Endemic
65
Cusk-eels belongs to the order
Answer
D. Ophidiiformes
66
What does the acronym āFIDFā stands for
Answer
Question Cancelled
67
In the Winkler method for determining dissolved oxygen, what is the primary purpose of the alkaline iodide-azide reagent (Winkler B)?
Answer
B. To release iodine when acidiļ¬ed for titration
68
Which form of vitamin A is most common in freshwater ļ¬sh?
Answer
B. Vitamin A2
69
Which is the most important factor to consider when selecting larval feed?
Answer
B. Mouth size
70
Which major anti-nutritional factor is present in cottonseed?
Answer
C. Gossypol
71
Moisture content of dry feed ranges from
Answer
B. 6-10%
72
Find the odd one out
Answer
B. Canning
73
Chemical formula of struvite formed in canned products
Answer
A. Magnesium Ammonium phosphate hexahydrate
74
Medina panels are Bycatch Reduction Devices (BRDs) used in
Answer
D. Purse seines
75
Which is the ideal method of extension teaching when the extension workers want to deal with a group of farmers?
Answer
B. Method of demonstration
76
Which institution designed Trickle Down System (TDS) of aquaculture for rural development?
Answer
C. FAO
77
The major aim of PMMSY is
Answer
D. All the above
78
Identify the application of GIS in ļ¬sheries includes A. Fish behavioural studies B. Study on the dietary requirements C. Study the genetic variations D. Study the population dynamics in ļ¬shes
Answer
D. None of the above
79
Major ļ¬shing gears used to catch deep-sea sharks
Answer
D. Gillnets and hook and line
80
Gene bases for developing Jayanti Rohu were derived from the following ļ¬ve rivers
Answer
A. Ganga, Yamuna, Brahmaputra, Sutlej, Gomati
81
Choose the incorrect answer. The major diļ¬erences between co-operative society and partnership business are (i) Membership pattern of co-operative society is 25 persons from diļ¬erent families whereas partnership business it is 2 for trading and 20 for banking. (ii) Capital of co-operative society raised from members and nonmembers but in case of partnership business it is only from partners. (iii) The management of partnership business is vested with partners whereas co- operative society is management (iv) Liability of Co-operative society is limited whereas partnership business is unlimited
Answer
A. (i) only
82
Choose the incorrect answer. The major diļ¬erences between co-operative society and joint stock company are (i) Joint stock company is an association of Capitalist whereas co-operative society it is an association of economically weaker population (ii) The management of co-operative society is vested with Managing Committee where as joint stock company is Board of Directors. (iii) In case of joint stock company the basis of importance is capital where as co- operative society it is their employees. (iv) The main objective of joint stock company is proļ¬t where as Co-operative society is service and welfare.
Answer
A. (iii) only
83
Given below are the diļ¬erent stages for the development of co- operative principles. Choose the last stage of the principle. (i) Co-operative Principles by ICA in 1995 (ii) ICA principle (iii) Karve Committee on Co-operative Principles (iv) Roachdale principle
Answer
A. (i)
84
Why Roachdale are called the Pioneers of Co-operative movement? Choose the most appropriate answers from the options given below. (i) They are responsible for organizing the ļ¬rst permanently successful co-operative store (ii) They succeeded in giving deļ¬nite shape to the co-operative movement (iii) The individual, involved there in were outstanding personalities (iv) They are the persons who could organize a co-operative whole sale society
Answer
C. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
85
Who is considered as the father of Co-operation?
Answer
D. Robert Owen
86
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. The objectives of Service Co-operative Bank are (i) To provide short term and medium term loans for meeting their seasonal agricultural operations. (ii) To supply farm requisites such as seeds, fertilizers, insecticides etc. (iii) To provide essential consumer goods (iv) To supervise the utilizations of loans
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
87
Choose the incorrect answer : The proļ¬t distribution of District Co-operative Bank is done in the following ways. (i) Not less than 20 per cent to Reserve Fund (ii) Not less than 10 per cent to Co-operative Education Fund (iii) Dividend as per by laws of the bank (iv) Such other reserves as may be prescribed by the by-laws
Answer
B. (i) and (ii) only
88
Which is not the primary objective of State Co-operative Bank? (i) To ļ¬nance District Co-operative Bank (ii) To raise funds from RBI, NABARD (iii) To implement agriculture development schemes (iv) To supply agriculture implements
Answer
C. (iv) only
89
Choose the sources of fund of Primary Co-operative Agriculture and Rural Development Bank? (i) Share Capital (ii) Reserve fund and other funds (iii) Loans and Advances from SCARDB (iv) Loans, Grants and Subsidy from Government
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
90
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below? Functions of NABARD are (i) Credit Functions (ii) Development Functions (iii) Rural Functions
Answer
C. (i), (ii), (iii)
91
Which one of the following statement is wrong in connection with NCDC?
Answer
A. It was under RBI, till the creation ministry of cooperation, Govt. of India in 2018
92
Which one of the following statement is wrong with regards to National Dairy Plan?
Answer
C. It was implemented during 10th and 11th ļ¬ve year plan periods
93
Consider the following statements related to 'e-Samridhi'. (i) It was started in the year 20017 (ii) It is a scheme introduced by NAFED (iii) It is for small farmers of rural area (iv) The scheme pay higher of MSP or market price Identify the correct statements from the combinations given below?
Answer
B. (i) and (ii)
94
Among the following, which is the Apex institution of Cooperative Housing Societies in Kerala?
Answer
D. HOUSEFED
95
As per section 13 of the Kerala Cooperative Societies act 1969, an amendment to the bylaw of a cooperative society will come into eļ¬ect normally from which date?
Answer
B. From the date of registration of the amendment
96
Analyse the following statements and identify the wrong one
Answer
D. In a multi state cooperative society, only individual members can vote
97
Following statements are based on Cooperative Societies Act 1912. Identify the wrong one
Answer
C. A registered society can give loan to any person residing in its operating area
98
As per Kerala Cooperative Societies Act 1969, accounts should be audited within what period?
Answer
A. Six months from the date of close of the ļ¬nancial year
99
Which of the following institutions audit report is to be submitted before the Kerala Legislative Assembly as per Kerala Cooperative Societies Act 1969?
Answer
B. Apex co-operative societies in the state
100
Which of the following cooperative institutions are NOT fully exempted from paying audit fee?
Answer
D. Primary Women Cooperative Societies
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