| Post Name | Professor in Obstetrics and Gynaeclogy - Govt Homoeopathic Medical Colleges |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 075/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 628/2023 |
| Date of Test | 27 June 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The preimplantaion embryo requires exogenous energy sources from all except
Answer
C. Peritoneal fluid
2
Which is capable of steroidogenesis
Answer
B. Theca interna
3
Fat mobilization during pregnancy is increased by lipoprotein lipase and maintained by all except
Answer
C. Human chorionic gonadotropin
4
Which of the following about vagina is false ?
Answer
C. Rich in glands
5
Drug that can be given for superficial venous thrombosis are all except
Answer
B. Low dose Aspirin
6
Drugs for stimulation of Lactation is
Answer
A. Matachlorpromide
7
Which is the most important plane in obstructed labour
Answer
D. Plane of least pelvic dimensions
8
Which is the shortest dimensions of fetal skull
Answer
B. Biparietal
9
Prematurity is higher in
Answer
C. Smoking in pregnancy
10
The Vaccine recommended during pregnancy is
Answer
C. Rabies vaccine
11
Use of folic acid to prevent congenital malformation is best initiated
Answer
D. Before Conception
12
Oxygenated blood is carried out from placenta to heart in utero by
Answer
A. Umbilical vein
13
Soft markers of ultrasound are all except
Answer
D. Duodenal atresia
14
Which of the following is not an evidence of early pregnancy loss on USG ?
Answer
C. An initial USG shows a gestational sac with yolk sac and after ≥ 7 days, no embryo with heart beat is seen
15
The recurrence risk in case of a previons Abruptio Placentae with fetal death is
Answer
B. 12%
16
WOMAN trial evaluated the efficiency of
Answer
A. Tranexamic acid in PPH
17
Identify the incorrect statement about miscarriage
Answer
B. The rate of abortion with euploid fetuses peaks at approximately 8 weeks of gestational age.
18
Stage 2 antenatal Twin Anemia Polycythemia Sequence (TAPS) classification corresponds to
Answer
A. MCA PSV of donor over 1.7 MOM and recipient <0.8 MOM without other signs of fetal compromise.
19
Identify the incorrect statement in the management of uterine inversion following delivery.
Answer
D. If manual reposition fails, do surgical correction by Haultain's procedure where upward traction is given on round ligaments with atraumatic clamps.
20
Pelvic inlet contraction is diagnosed when
Answer
C. Diagonal Conjugate is <11.5cm
21
Identify the incorrect statement regarding epidural analgesia in labor
Answer
A. Complete analgesia for labor and delivery vaginally necessitates blockade of 710 - S2 segments.
22
Start plotting WHO Labor Care Guide (LCG) for all patients in labor when.
Answer
A. The patient has entered active phase of first stage of labor and cervix is ≥5cm dilated.
23
Which of the following is an indication for Caesarean Section as per Obstetrical Care Consensus Criteria for management of Arrest disorders in labor ?
Answer
B. No progress after 4 hrs of adequate contraction and ruptured membranes.
24
As per ISUOG Guidelines for Intrapartum Ultrasound, identify the incorrect statement.
Answer
D. The most reliable sonographic parameter to predict the outcome of operative vaginal delivery is midline angle.
25
Identify the incorrect statement regarding induction of labor.
Answer
B. Tachysystole common with oral dose > 25 mg of prostaglandin E1 (PGE1).
26
Among the following which drug is associated with significant neonatal morbidity.
Answer
D. Atosiban
27
Which of the following statements is/are correct about risk factors for fetal macrosomia ? I. Maternal age >35 years. II. Post term pregnancy. III. Multiparity. IV. Eating disorders. V. Large size parents.
Answer
C. Only I, II, III and V
28
Which anti hypertensive agent for urgent control of severe hypertension precipitates bronchial asthma ?
Answer
B. Labetalol
29
All of the following are pregnancy specific conditions causing maternal thrombocytopenia in pregnancy EXCEPT
Answer
C. Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome
30
Which is NOT true regarding Varizella-Zoster virus infection in pregnancy ?
Answer
A. Herpes zoster appears to be more frequent and severe in gravidas
31
USG indicated cervical cerclage is offered if
Answer
D. Cervical length is less than 25mm among pregnant women with previous preterm labour or mid trimester loss
32
Regarding the conduct of labour after previous caesarean section following are true EXCEPT
Answer
B. Successful VBAC (Vaginal Birth After Caesarean) rates are similar among spontaneous and induced labour.
33
Regarding the fourth trimester all are true EXCEPT.
Answer
A. Complete involution in nulliparous uterus is longer than for the multiparous organ.
34
Which among the following is NOT an indication (red flag sign) for urgent referral while assessing a puerperal woman ?
Answer
C. Offensive vaginal discharge
35
The most important risk factor for preterm labour
Answer
D. Prior preterm birth
36
BEAM trial is regarding
Answer
B. Magnesium sulfate for neuroprotection
37
The WHO has identified ________ as the best indicator of the effectiveness of intervention in iron deficiency.
Answer
C. Serum Ferritin
38
Basic Emergency obstetric and New born care includes all except (B Em ONC)
Answer
D. Blood Transfusion
39
First trimester risk assessment for Pre Ecelampsia is done using a combination of maternal history and biomarkers which include
Answer
C. Serum PLGF (placental growth factor)
40
Criteria for outlet forceps delivery include all except
Answer
A. Fetal skull is visible at the introitus (INTROITUS) without separating the labia
41
All are prerequisites for operative vaginal delivery except
Answer
A. Cervix fully dialated and non retracted
42
Recommendation for systematic treatment and supportive medications for patients under going cancer treatment in pregnancy include all except
Answer
A. Dosing of chemotherapeutic drug during pregnancy should be based on prepregnancy weight.
43
For NT (Nuchal Translucency) measurement the prerequisite is
Answer
D. During the scam only one measurement should be taken
44
WHO recommendation on maternal and newborn care for a positive postnatal experience include
Answer
D. All of the above
45
All of the following are Government of India sponsored safe motherhood programmes except
Answer
A. KASP (Karunya Arogya Suraksha Padhathi)
46
Which of the following above which signifies cardio respiratory collapse and belong to the criteria for identification of maternal near miss (MNM) cases ?
Answer
B. Heart rate >120 beats per minute
47
Carbetocin is contraindicated in all the following circumstances for the prevention of postpartum Haemorrhage (PPH) except
Answer
B. women with history of Bronchial Asthma
48
Among the 8 Millennium Development Goals (MDG) improving internal health by decreasing the medicinal mortality ratio and universal access to reproductive health is
Answer
B. Goal 5
49
Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) was adopted by United Nation in 2015. Among the 17 SDGs sustainable development goal - 2 denotes
Answer
B. Zero Hunger
50
Normal menstrual cycle is defined as i) frequency varies between 15 and 40 days ii) regularity (variation of menstrual cycle length) : 2 to 20 days iii) average normal bleeding amount : 5-80 mL iv) an average of 7 days
Answer
A. i, iv are wrong
51
According to FIGO PALM COIEN Classification of abnormal Uterine bleeding i) P is Polyp ii) A is Asherman syndrome iii) L is luteal phase defect iv) M is Mittelschmerz bleeding
Answer
B. ii, iii, iv are wrong
52
Factors which reduced risk of endometriosis are i) Oral contraceptive Pills ii) Nulliparity iii) Early Menarche iv) Pregnancy
Answer
C. ii, iii are wrong
53
Paramesonepheric duct forms i) Fallopian Tube ii) Uterus iii) Epididymis iv) Vas deferens v) Upper two third of vagina
Answer
C. i, ii, iv are correct
54
Uterovaginal malformation gives rise to following symptoms or complaints i) Infertility ii) Pregnancy loss iii) Preterm delivery iv) Preterm Premature rupture of membranes v) All of the above
Answer
D. v is correct
55
FIGO Classification of LEOMYOMA according to location in the uterus i) Submucous (FIGO type 0,1,2) : Completely within the endometrial cavity and/or extend into myometrium. ii) Intramural (FIGO type 3,4,5) : They are located within the uterine wall (myometrium) iii) Subserosal (FIGO type 6,7) : They are located on the serosal (outer) surface of the uterus, extend beyond the uterus, could be pedunculated, intraligamentary (i.e., broad ligament), parasitic as well, abdominal wall fibroids. iv) Cervical (FIGO type 8). v) All are correct
Answer
C. v is correct
56
Risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia include i) Anovulation ii) Estrogen producing tumor iii) Late manarche iv) Use of exogenous estrogen with progesterone v) Tamoxifen treatment
Answer
A. iii, iv are wrong
57
Indications to add progesterone in Menopausal Hormone therapy (MHT) are i) Patients underwent hysterectomy for endometrial cancer ii) Patients underwent hysterectomy for endometriosis iii) Supracervical hysterectomy iv) Endometroid tumour of ovary v) All of the above
Answer
D. v is correct
58
About clomiphene citrate i) It is selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) ii) Its half life is 10 days iii) Used for ovulation induction since 1967 iv) Stimulates circulating Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) by antagonizing estrogen in infertile patients so follicle development is stimulated
Answer
A. ii, iv are wrong
59
Cervical cancer screening protocol i) Pap smear (Cervical cytology) should be performed after 21 years of age and is repeated every 3 years. ii) HPV screening begins after the age of 21. It is repeated every 5 years. iii) If a high-risk HPV type other than HPV 16 or 18 is detected, then the HPV test should be repeated 1 year later. iv) If high risk positive again (1 year later) → colposcopy is to be done. v) All are correct.
Answer
B. ii is incorrect
60
Common cause of primary amenorrhoea i) Turner's syndrome ii) Mullerian agenesis iii) Constitutional delay iv) Transverse vaginal septum v) All the above
Answer
C. v is correct
61
On gynaecological examination uterine and adnexal masses can be differentiated by the following : i) Mass can be palpated through fornices or midline ii) Find out if uterus palpated separately or not iii) Presence of a groove between mass and uterus iv) Presence of transmitted mobility suggests adnexal mass v) All the above
Answer
B. iv is wrong
62
Adenomyosis i) It is presence of endometrial tissue in the myometrium at least 3 high power (2.5 mm) field from basal layer. ii) It can be localized or diffuse. iii) Most common symptoms are HMB and dysmenorrhoea. iv) Musa criteria on ultrasound is used for diagnosis. v) All the above.
Answer
A. i is wrong
63
Current Sonographic criteria for PCOS morphology require __________
Answer
C. Presence of 20 or more follicles in single ovary each measuring to 2-9 mm, ovarian volume > 10 ml
64
Gene XPERT is used in
Answer
B. Extra pulmonary tuberculosis
65
Whch are the characteristics of hyper responders on gonadotrophin stimulation used in ART 1. Obesity 2. FSH <8 miu/ml 3. AFC > 12 4. AMH < 1ng/ml 5. Age > 37 yrs
Answer
D. 2 and 3 true
66
Kallmann syndrome in women is characterised by all except
Answer
B. Genetic disorder of KAL 1 gene mutation of short arm of X chromosome resulting in hyper gonadotrophic hypogonadism
67
True statement about GnRH secretion is
Answer
D. GnRH secretion occurs in a pulsatile fashion with higher pulse frequency stimulates LH secretion
68
The Hilus cells of ovary closely resembles
Answer
A. Testicular Leydig cells
69
All are characters of Adolescent abnormal uterine bleeding except
Answer
A. Cycles longer than 35 days
70
True statements about classic congenital adrenal hyperplasia are 1. Classic form is due to 17 hydroxylase deficiency resulting in heterosexual precocious puberty. 2. There is impaiment in conversion of 11 de oxy cortisol to 17 hydroxy progesterone 3. Mildly virilise newborn should be monitored closely for life threatening crisis within the first few days of life 4. Untreated girls grow rapidly and results in tall stature. 5. Normal childbearing is possible with appropriate therapy
Answer
D. 3, 5 true
71
In Hyper prolactinemia following statements are true 1. If serum prolactin levels are > 20 ng/ml MR imaging should be done. 2. No breast examination should be done prior to prolactin estimation since it may yield false positive results 3. Should be checked at night when prolactin levels are at nadir 4. Cause anovulation due to stimulation of dopaminergic receptors on the GnRH neurons altering GnRH pulsatility and reducing folliculogeneis.
Answer
A. 2, 4 true
72
Primary amenorrhea due to androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by 1. Phenotypically females with XY karyotype and blind ending vagina. 2. Streak gonads with upper part of uterus is rudimentary. 3. Tall eunuchoid females with well-developed breasts. 4. Once diagnosed testes should be removed as soon as possible due to high risk of malignancy.
Answer
D. 1, 3 true
73
The four phenotypes of PCOS includes all except
Answer
C. PCOS with obesity and insulin resistance
74
Definitive criteria for diagnosis of PID includes all except
Answer
D. Vaginal swab culture showing Neisseria gonorrhoea and Chlamydia trachomatis
75
Early age at onset of sexual activity increases the risk of Cancer Cervix because i. the squamocolumnar junction is more towards the endocervical region ii. cervical reserve and metaplastic cells are more vulnerable to the oncogenic effects of HPV. iii. squamous metaplasia is most active during adolescence and pregnancy. iv. the more mature the epithelium, the higher the risk of viral reservoir formation in the cells.
Answer
B. ii and iii
76
Younger women frequently show changes in HPV types on repeat testing because i. Most HPV lesions regress spontaneously in young women. ii. there might be sequential reinfection by new partners. iii. clinical infections with high-risk HPV types never regress. iv. HPV infections do not occur frequently in young women in monogamous relationships.
Answer
A. i and ii
77
In a complex ovarian mass on Ultrasound scan, 12 cm size, which of these patients should be referred to a Gynaecologic Oncologist
Answer
D. a post-menopausal woman with an OVA 1 score of 4.5
78
The highest risk in a woman with Endometrial Carcinoma is in a patient with
Answer
C. p53 abnormalities
79
A 57-year old menopausal lady, with no comorbidities is on vaginal oestrogen therapy since the last nine months for Genitourinary syndrome of menopause. Which of the following is the true statement ?
Answer
C. Endometrial sampling is indicated only if she presents with bleeding
80
Regarding Lymph node dissection in Endometrial Carcinoma, the following are true i. sentinel lymph node biopsy can be performed in low-risk disease ii. systematic lymphadenectomy should be done in all cases. iii. sentinel lymph node dissection following lymphatic mapping may increase detection of low-volume disease with low false positive rates iv. sentinel lymph node biopsy is an adequate alternative to systematic lymphadenectomy for staging purposes.
Answer
B. i, iii, and iv
81
Tests for muscle function to assess severity of Sarcopenia in Menopause include all except
Answer
A. Clinical Anthropometry
82
Hysteroscopic myomectomy is better feasible if the submucous myoma is
Answer
A. < 3 cm and extends < 50% into the myometrium
83
The following are true about pneumoperitoneum in gynaecological laparoscopic procedures i. the maximum flow rate of with a Veress needle is 3 L/min. ii. heated and humidified gas gives better patient outcomes. iii. target intra-abdominal pressure is ideally between 8-10 mm Hg. iv. Monitoring end-tidal concentration is mandatory to prevent hypercapnoea and respiratory acidosis
Answer
D. i and iv
84
Bilateral Salpingectomy done in a low risk 42-year old woman undergoing hysterectomy for large fibroid uterus is called
Answer
A. Risk reducing Salpingectomy
85
Chemotherapy in advanced Cancer cervix involves the use of
Answer
B. Carboplatin + Paclitaxel
86
The preferred mode of treatment for a woman with Infertility and severe Endometriosis is
Answer
B. Laparoscopic adhesiolysis and restoration of pelvic anatomy
87
All the following are correct regarding partial mole except
Answer
B. 20% incidence of neoplasia
88
Posterior acoustic shadowing on ultrasound is a feature of
Answer
A. Dermoid cyst
89
Most effective method of high volume weight loss
Answer
D. Bariatric surgery
90
First line treatment for infertility in females with PCOS
Answer
C. Letrozole
91
COC's provide protection against following malignancy
Answer
C. Endometrial cancer
92
Following is currently not an indication for use of HRT
Answer
C. Prevention of dementia
93
Efficacy of quadrivalent HPV vaccine was studied in
Answer
B. FUTURE TRIAL
94
The main benefit of the transobturator over the retro pubic tape procedure for the treatment of SUI is
Answer
A. Reducing risk of introperative bladder injury
95
According to WHO the primary target population for HPV vaccination
Answer
A. 9-14
96
What is the risk of BRCA1 and BRCA2 pathogenic variants in the Ashkenazi Jewish population
Answer
B. 1 in 40
97
Absolute contraindications of COC are all exceopt
Answer
D. Hyperlipidemia
98
MTP Amendment Act 2021 includes following except
Answer
A. Pregnancy termination requires opinion of two RMP's from 12-20 weeks
99
Metastasis to the lungs in GTN is
Answer
C. Stage III
100
Which of the following about Non Stress Test (NST)is incorrect ?
Answer
C. Variable deceleration that are non repetitive and brief (< 60 sec) are not associated with fetal compromise or need for obstetric intervention
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