| Post Name | Professor in Obstetrics and Gynaecology - Government Homoeopathic Medical Colleges |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 053/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 719/2024 |
| Date of Test | 20 June 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
What will be the level of the Uterus on the second day post delivery?
Answer
A. One ļ¬nger breadth below umbilicus
2
The complication associated with i/v Bolus injection of oxytocin
Answer
B. Hypotension
3
A pregnant women was given indomethacin. What will be the eļ¬ect on the fetus?
Answer
A. Premature closure of ductus arteriosus
4
Which one of the following changes occurs in the urinary system during pregnancy?
Answer
C. Increased renal blood ļ¬ow
5
The uterine musculature during pregnancy is arranged in which of the following layers
Answer
B. Intermediate : Interlacing
6
On per vaginal examination, if the bispinous diameter is inadequate, what diļ¬culty you can expect during labor
Answer
D. Diļ¬culty in internal rotation
7
Earliest diagnosis of pregnancy can be established safely by
Answer
C. Human chorionic gonadotropin levels
8
Which of the following is not seen in tetralogy of fallot?
Answer
D. Hypertrophy of left ventricle
9
Which vessel traverses the liver to enter the inferior vena cava directly?
Answer
B. Umbilical Vein
10
The Morula enters the uterine cavity in
Answer
A. 3-4 days
11
Characteristic sonographic ļ¬ndings suggestive of Placenta Accreta Spectrum (PAS) are all except
Answer
B. Thickening of the retroplacental myometrium
12
Which of the following statement is false regarding immunisation during pregnancy?
Answer
D. Human Papilloma Virus vaccine is indicated in high risk women during pregnancy
13
Which of the following statement is/are true about placental abruption? (i) Couvelaire uterus is an indication for hysterectomy (ii) Placental abruption is the most common cause of clinically profound consumptive coagulopathy in obstetrics (iii) Placental abruption has a high recurrence rate (iv) HELLP syndrome carries an increased risk of abruption
Answer
B. (ii), (iii), (iv)
14
All of the following statements are true regarding shoulder dystocia except
Answer
B. Mc Roberts Maneuver increases the angle of pelvic inclination
15
Factors favourable for success of induction of labour are all except
Answer
A. BMl > 30
16
All the following statements are true regarding face presentation except
Answer
C. Sub occipito - bregmatic diameter is the engaging diameter
17
Predicted success rate of subsequent pregnancy following three miscarriages at the age of 30 years is approximately
Answer
B. 80%
18
The following statements are true regarding hCG (i) Syncytiotrophoblast produces hCG (ii) hCG and LH share same receptor in tissues (iii) hCG is a heterodimer composed of and subunits, which are covalently linked (iv) Peak hCG levels are reached at 16 weeks of gestation
Answer
A. (i) and (ii)
19
All the following statements are true regarding ļ¬rst trimester spontaneous abortions except
Answer
C. of chromosomal abnormalities 95% are caused by paternal gametogeneis errors and 5% by maternal gametogenesis errors
20
All the following statements are true about Phenylketonuria except
Answer
B. Phenylalanine will not cross the placenta
21
Amino infusion is a reasonable approach to treat
Answer
C. repetitive variable deceleration
22
In the three tier fetal heart rate interpretation system, category II or indeterminate include all except
Answer
A. Sinusoidal pattern
23
Narcotic antagonist capable of reversing respiratory depression in newborn induced by opioid narcotic obstetric analgesia in mother
Answer
B. Naloxone
24
Absolute contraindication for spinal analgesia in labour and delivery include
Answer
A. Thrombocytopenia < 70,000 /Ī¼L (microlitre)
25
Shoulder dystocia management include
Answer
A. Zavanelli Maneuver
26
Optimum ultrasound regimen in the management of uncomplicated Mono Chorionic Twin pregnancy include
Answer
A. Fetal USG every 2 week from 16+0/7 week of Gestational Age until birth
27
WHO recommendation 2022 on tocolytic therapy for improving pre term birth outcome include
Answer
B. Can be given even in cases of intrauterine infection and vaginal bleeding
28
In the risk assessment for Fetal Growth Restriction (FGR) at booking visit (by 14 weeks of Gestational Age) to identify those who require increased surveillance, moderate risk factor include
Answer
C. Women who is aged 40 years or more at booking
29
Oligohydraminos is seen in the pregnancy when the fetus has
Answer
C. Persistant cloaca
30
In the management of Obstetrical Hemorrhage which one is true about Cryoprecipitate
Answer
B. 15-20 units or 3-4 gm will increase base line ļ¬brinogen by approximately 150 mg/decilitre
31
Which of the following clinical trials is not associated with Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy?
Answer
B. SWEPIS trial
32
Goals of treatment of ARDS in pregnancy include all except
Answer
D. Maintain Positive End Expiratory pressure at > 15%
33
Hydrops fetalis occur when fetal hematocrit is less than
Answer
A. 15%
34
Recurrent Pregnancy Loss evaluation now includes all except
Answer
B. Fetal Karyotyping
35
All are true about human milk in puerperium (i) Lactose accounts for half of the oncotic pressure (ii) Human milk whey : casein = 40:60 (iii) The amount of lactose in 100 ml is around 7 grams (iv) Vit. K is adequately present in milk
Answer
C. (i) and (iii) are true
36
Low IgG avidity is seen
Answer
A. Primary CMV infection
37
In an obese pregnant lady with BMI of 32, pick out the wrong statement.
Answer
C. There is decreased plasma insulin levels in obese patients with hypertension
38
Few statements regarding intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (IHCP) are given below. Pick out the wrong statements : (i) SGPT/SGOT values are usually less than 200 (ii) LCHAD gene mutation are associated with it (iii) Delivery is recommended by 37-38 weeks in uncomplicated IHCP (iv) Bile acid has hepatotoxic eļ¬ect on the fetus leading to still births
Answer
D. Only (ii) and (iv)
39
A 33-year-old primigravida came with PROM of more than 24 hours. She underwent Caesarean Section (CS) for failed induction. She has developed fever of 38 degree Celsius and she is now on post operative day 5. The following statements regarding her condition is true
Answer
D. One of the ļ¬rst signs of peritonitis in puerperium is adynamic ileus
40
Which of the following can be used in TOLAC with least chance of rupture?
Answer
C. Foleys Catheter
41
Choose the correct answers ACOG (2021a) has recommended that (i) Variable decelerations of whatever type needs immediate obstetric intervention (ii) Variable deceleration if non repetitive and brief duration < 30 seconds needs to obstetric intervention (iii) Variable deceleration repetitive 2 in 60 minutes is associated with increased risk of caesarean delivery for fetal distress (iv) Deceleration lasting ā„ 1 minute have even worse fetal prognosis (v) Variable deceleration associated with oligohydramnios resulted in 40% chance of caesarean delivery
Answer
C. (ii), (iv) correct
42
ASSERTION - NST is a better predictor for fetal surveillance than CST REASON - Still birth rates within one week of normal antepartum fetal surveillance test is 1.9/1000 for CST and 0.3/1000 for NST
Answer
B. Both ASSERTION and REASON are wrong
43
Choose the correct answers According to the Guidelines, Diagnosis of early pregnancy loss by TVS includes (i) MSD ā„ 25 mm with no embryo (ii) CRL ā„ 8 mm with no heart beat (iii) Initial USG shows a gestational sac and yolk sac and after ā„ 7 days no embryo with heart beat is seen (iv) Initial USG shows a gestational sac without yolk sac and after ā„ 2 weeks no embryo with heart beat is seen
Answer
D. (i), (iv) are CORRECT
44
Choose the correct answers In the repair of a Type 3 c Perineal Laceration (i) overlapping technique yields better results compared to end-to-end anastomosis of EAS repair (ii) Enema and suppositories should be continued for one week for better healing (iii) One single dose of antibiotic at the time of repair is recommended (iv) IAS is repaired before EAS repair
Answer
A. (iii), (iv) are CORRECT
45
Choose the correct answers Regarding Neoplastic changes of cervix during pregnancy, true is (i) High grade lesions need HPV testing and frequent colposcopy every 12 weeks and biopsy is indicated if worsening or invasive cancer is suspected (ii) No endocervical curettage is performed during pregnancy (iii) Cervical conization can be done during pregnancy for pre invasive lesions of cervix (iv) Advanced stage cervical cancers in early trimester of pregnancy can undergo gentle curettage followed by External Beam Radio Therapy
Answer
C. (i), (ii) are CORRECT
46
Choose the correct answers Obstetrical imaging guidelines for Nuchal Translucency measurement includes (i) Angle of insonation is perpendicular to the NT line and fetus is in mid sagittal plane with nasal tip, palate and diencephalon visible (ii) Majority of the image is ļ¬lled by fetal head, neck and upper thorax (iii) + Calipers are placed parallel to the fetal long axis in the inner border of the nuchal membranes with none of the horizontal cross bands protruding into the space (iv) Measurement is made at the widest NT space and average of 3 NT measurement is taken
Answer
A. (i), (ii) are CORRECT
47
True SINUSOIDAL Fetal heart rate pattern includes all except
Answer
A. Absent variability and only 1 acceleration lasting for 15 bpm
48
Component of Ex utero Intrapartum Treatment procedure (EXIT) includes all except
Answer
B. Uterotonics and spinal anesthesia
49
Indicators of an acute peripartum or intra partum event leading to HIE (Hypoxic Ischaemic Encephalopathy) include (i) APGAR Sore < 5 at 5 and 10 mts (ii) Umbilical arterial PH < 7, Acid base deļ¬cit ā„ 12 mmol/L (iii) Neuro Imaging (MRI) showing acute brain injury (iv) Multisystem involvement (v) Oxygen saturation at 1 mt is 60-65% and 5 mt is 80-85%
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) are CORRECT
50
PRADHAN MANTRI SURAKSHIT MATRITVA ABHIYAN (PMSMA) launched in June 2016 includes (i) Envisages to improve diagnostic and counselling services as a part of reproductive maternal neonatal child and adolescent health (RMNCH+A) Strategy and services are provided free of cost (ii) Ensures a minimum package of antenatal care services including investigations and drugs and are being provided to the beneļ¬ciaries on the day of every month. (iii) Presently involves health care providers in government sector and in next stage will include health workers in private sector also as volunteers (iv) Ensures Institutional care at time of child birth and aims at improving the quality of care at the delivery points
Answer
C. (i), (ii) are CORRECT
51
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the presence of opening in the Vestibule? (i) Urethral opening (ii) Vaginal oriļ¬ce (iii) Opening of paired Bartholin's duct (iv) Opening of Paraurethral ducts
Answer
C. All of the above (i, ii, iii, iv)
52
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Female urethra? (i) Measures 6 cm with diameter of 6 mm (ii) Posterior urethrovesical angle measures 100Ā° (iii) Upper 2/3 is covered with stratiļ¬ed transitional epithelium and distal 1/3 with stratiļ¬ed epithelium (iv) There is no sub mucosal coat
Answer
A. Only (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
53
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Ovary (i) Develops from gonadal ridge (ii) Cortex of ovary develops from coelomic epithelium (iii) Medulla of vary develops from mesenchyme (iv) Germ cells develop from endodermal cells
Answer
C. (iv) is wrong
54
Which of the following statements is/are correct about association of these syndromes with primary amenorrhoea (i) Turner syndrome (ii) Mayor Rotkinstansky Kuster Hauser Syndrome (MRKH) Syndrome (iii) Kallman's syndrome (iv) Klinefelter's syndrome
Answer
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
55
Which of the following statements is/are correct about beneļ¬ts of Menopausal Hormone Therapy (i) Improves Vasomotor symptoms (ii) Decrease Bone Mineral Density (iii) Decrease risk of vertebral and hip fracture (iv) Decrease in colorectal cancer
Answer
A. (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
56
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Menstruation? (i) Average age of menarche is 15 years (ii) Average menstrual blood loss is 35 - 80 ml (iii) 70% of menstrual blood loss is in 2 days (iv) Alkaline hematin is the most precise to measure menstrual blood loss
Answer
B. (i) is wrong
57
Which of the following statements is/are correct about colposcopy? (i) it is a low power binocular microscope (ii) directed biopsy is gold standard (iii) used to evaluate women with abnormal cytology (iv) all of the above
Answer
B. (iv) is correct
58
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Endometrial ablation in AUB? (i) No response to medical therapy (ii) Completed family (iii) No endometrial pathology (iv) Endometrial carcinoma
Answer
D. (iv) is wrong
59
Which of the following statements is/are correct about common causes of post coital bleeding? (i) Carcinoma Cervix (ii) Cervical mucous polyp (iii) Cervical erosion (iv) All of the above
Answer
D. Only (iv)
60
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Diagnostic criteria for Acute salpingitis? (i) Abdominal tenderness (iii) Cervical motion tenderness (iii) Uterine tenderness (iv) Adnexal tenderness (v) All the above
Answer
D. Only (v)
61
With respect to the medical management of Endometriosis, which of the following is true? (i) Extra pelvic endometriosis respond well to medical management (ii) Aromatase inhibitors are used for treating endometriosis (iii) OCP's acts by inducing dedidualization of the endometrium
Answer
A. Only (ii) and (iii)
62
AUB associated with the use of anticoagulants belongs to
Answer
C. AUB-I
63
Hyperprolactinemia is associated with all of the following except :
Answer
C. Bromocriptine
64
With regard to Primary Ovarian Insuļ¬ciency (POI).
Answer
D. It may be associated with hypothyroidism
65
The diagnosis of Adenomyosis by MUSA criteria on transvaginalsonography, include all of the following except
Answer
D. Regular and Uninterrupted junctional zone
66
Most commonly aļ¬ected organ in genital tuberculosis
Answer
C. Fallopian Tube
67
Primary amenorrhoea associated with poor breast development, but with presence of uterus and normal lower genital tract may be due to
Answer
B. Turner's syndrome
68
All the following are true regarding red degeneration of ļ¬broid except :
Answer
A. Seen in 50% of the pregnant women with myomas
69
The treatment of choice for children with isosexual precocious puberty
Answer
C. GnRH agonists
70
Lower genital tract infections with Neisseria gonorrhea are usually characterized by
Answer
A. Malodorous, purulent vaginal or urethral discharge
71
Which of the statements regarding oogenesis is INCORRECT?
Answer
D. Meiosis II is completed before fertilization
72
Which is the receptor responsible for mediating the rapid, non-genomic eļ¬ects of estrogens?
Answer
C. GPER
73
Which of the chromosomal abnormality is most commonly associated with azoospermia?
Answer
A. Klinefelter's syndrome
74
Which gene mutation is most commonly implicated in 46, XY gonadal dystenesis (Swyer syndrome)?
Answer
A. SRY
75
An 18-year-old presents with primarily amenorrhea, well-developed breasts and absent public hair. On karyotyping is found to have a 46 XY and USG shows a suggestion of intra-abdominal gonads. Serum testosterone is high. What is the most likely serum LH and FSH pattern?
Answer
B. Both high
76
A 27 yr old year-old woman presents with hirsutism, normal menstrual cycles and lab tests show normal androgen levels. What is the likely cause?
Answer
B. Idiopathic hirsutism
77
A 30 year-old lady with previous 2 normal deliveries presents with hyperprolactinemia, macroadenoma on dopamine agonists and 8 weeks pregnancy. What is the best management?
Answer
A. Continue dopamine agonist
78
The cause of increased facial hair growth in a postmenopausal woman is due to
Answer
C. Decreased estrogen / androgen ratio
79
The most important risk of hysteroscopic surgery using glycine as distension medium is
Answer
A. Hyponatremia
80
During laparoscopy, a 45-year-old obese woman develops sudden bradycardia and hypotension after insuļ¬ation. What is the most likely cause?
Answer
D. embolism
81
The following structures may be injured during sacrospinous ligament ļ¬xation except
Answer
C. Superior gluteal artery
82
All are True about Atypical leiomyomas except
Answer
A. Mitotically active leiomyoma is deļ¬ned by the presence of 5 to 10 mitosis/10 high power ļ¬elds and may be found in pregnancy and OCP users
83
Cervical conisation is indicated in all except
Answer
C. Type I transformation zone
84
Regarding HPV induced cervical intraepithelial Neoplasia the false statement is
Answer
A. HPV-16 infection is a very speciļ¬c ļ¬nding and can be found in only 2% of women with normal cervical cytology
85
The incidence of ovarian metastasis in carcinoma cervix is
Answer
A. 1%
86
All are true regading Dermoid cyst of ovary except
Answer
C. Risk of torsion in Dermoid cyst is approximately 50%
87
While discharging a patient who underwent a vesicovaginal ļ¬stula repair which of the following would you recommend?
Answer
A. Sexual abstinence for 3 months and avoid pregnancy for 1 year
88
All are true about Enhanced Recovery After Surgery (ERAS) protocol except
Answer
D. Adequate pain relief with opoids
89
The following statements are true about Type II Endometrial cancers except
Answer
B. They are associated with PTEN and k-vas mutation
90
Regarding Elagolix the following statement is incorrect
Answer
B. Cannot produce or done dependent suppresses of pitutary function and ovarian hormones like GnRh agonists
91
Why is p57kip2 immunostaining positive in partial mole?
Answer
A. This gene is paternally imprinted and maternally expressed
92
Which of the following is NOT a character of placental site trophoblastic tumor?
Answer
C. It is sensitive to chemotherapy
93
30 year old female came to OPD, with concerns about her family history of cancer. Her maternal aunt recently died of ovarian cancer and her mother is also on Tamoxifen following breast surgery. The patient herself is asymptomatic. What is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Answer
B. Mammogram and annual follow up
94
24 yr old female presents to OPD after noticing a lump in her right breast while showering. On local examination a 2 cm, non-tender, smooth, mobile swelling is present in upper outer quadrant of right breast. She also complains of vague pain in the breast around her menstrual period. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer
D. Fibroadenoma
95
47 yr old lady presented to OPD with complaints of watery discharge from vagina for past 3 weeks. She underwent hysterectomy for Adenomyosis 4 weeks ago. The creatinine level of the ļ¬uid is 19 mg/dl. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Answer
A. Ureterovaginal ļ¬stula
96
24 yr old married nulliparous woman comes to OPD with complaints of mass protruding through vagina, lower backache and increased frequency of urination for past 5 months. On examination she is very tall and thin built with ļ¬at feet. A mid systolic click is heard on chest auscultation. Local examination revealed a 2nd degree prolapse uterus. What is the best treatment strategy for the patient?
Answer
D. Purandare sling operation
97
Enterocele correction by vaginal route is done in
Answer
A. McCall culdoplasty
98
28 yr old lactating woman with history of migraine approaches you for contraception. Which of the following is the ideal method for her?
Answer
B. Inj DMPA
99
Which method of fertility preservation allows the conservation of normal endocrine capacities as well as higher number of primordial follicles?
Answer
D. Ovarian tissue cryopreservation
100
All are Imaging ļ¬ndings of Adenomyosis except
Answer
C. Absence of endometrial lining in various regions of uterine cavity and ļ¬lling defect on HSG
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