| Post Name | Professor in Pathology and Microbiology - Govt Homoeopathic Medical Collges |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 077/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 627/2023 |
| Date of Test | 28 June 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following is NOT CORRECT about Lamins?
Answer
C. Are constituents of basement membrane
2
Mechanism of cell injury in Cyanide poisoning is by
Answer
A. Direct poisoning of mitochondrial cytochrome oxidase
3
A patient who received thrombolytic therapy for Myocardial infarction, has increased Serum Creatine Kinase-MB after therapy. What is the most likely biochemical basis for rise in CK-MB?
Answer
C. Increased generation of oxygen free radicals
4
Mention the correct sequence of journey of leukocytes in inflammation
Answer
C. Margination, rolling, adhesion to endothelium, migration
5
Select the vasoconstrictor in the group.
Answer
B. Thromboxane
6
Which is NOT TRUE about Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs)?
Answer
D. RNA and histones represent the major constituents
7
In which tumor if BRAF Mutations detected in nearly 100% cases?
Answer
A. Hairy cell leukemia
8
Which of the following subcellular structure in macrophages is important for accumulation of pigment seen in heart failure cells?
Answer
B. Lysosome
9
What is the abnormality in Chronic granulomatous disease?
Answer
B. Deficient NADPH oxidase
10
In a study of Pancreatic Ductal Adenocarcinoma (PDAC), molecular analysis showed continued activation of cytoplasmic kinases in 90% of cases. Which of the Oncogene is likely to be involved
Answer
C. RAS
11
A term infant has ambiguous external genitalia. Abdominal CT showed enlarged adrenal glands, uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries; Chromosomal analysis indicated 46 XX karyotype. The infant is likely to have the abnormality
Answer
B. Female pseudo hermaphroditism
12
Which of the following is the Marker for diffuse systemic sclerosis?
Answer
D. Anti Scl-70
13
Molecular analysis of cells from multiple colonic lesions from a patient who had carcinoma colon showed changes in hPMS1, hPMS2, hMLH1 genes. Which mode of carcinogenesis applies in this case?
Answer
B. Inability to repair DNA is carcinogenic
14
Which is the INCORRECT statement about BRCA1 AND BRCA2 genes.
Answer
C. Are inactivated in both familial and sporadic breast cancers
15
Choose the INCORRECT statement from the following descriptions of Venous thrombosis?
Answer
B. Venous thrombi are not attached to the vessel wall
16
Which of the following will show elevated blood levels in chronic lead poisoning?
Answer
D. Zinc-protoporphyrin (ZPP)
17
Release of which of the following into the cytosol triggers Apoptosis?
Answer
D. Cytochrome c
18
Which of the following enzymes protect the cell in free radical injury caused by hydrolysis of water as in radiation?
Answer
A. Glutathione peroxidase
19
Progression in which phase of cell cycle is controlled by Cyclin B and the active Cyclin dependent kinase 1 (CDK1)?
Answer
B. G2 to M
20
Role of CD 4 positive cells is in activation of
Answer
A. macrophages
21
What will be the renal biopsy findings in Acute cellular rejection after renal transplantation?
Answer
D. Interstitial infiltration by CD3+ lymphocytes, tubular epithelial damage
22
Which of the following is an acquired hypercoagulable state?
Answer
C. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
23
Choose the right option correctly describing the features of Fat embolism; (i) Typically seen 1-3 days after fractures of long bones (ii) Fat emboli are seen in cerebral and pulmonary vasculature (iii) Microscopically fat globules and bone marrow emboli can be found (iv) Anemia and thrombocytopenia can be seen
Answer
D. All the above (i, ii, iii and iv) are correct
24
All statements about Congenital syphilis are true, EXCEPT;
Answer
A. Cardiovascular syphilis occur in 25% cases
25
Which chemical carcinogen is a known risk factor for acute myeloid leukemia?
Answer
A. Benzene
26
Morphologic changes in myocardial infarction is given: Gross : Affected area has hyperemic border with central yellow tan softening. Histology showed beginning of disintegration of dead myofibers with dying neutrophils, early phagocytosis of dead cells by macrophages at infarct border How much time has elapsed since the onset of infarction and death?
Answer
B. 3-7 days
27
Select the single best response. In Atherosclerosis, the formation of foamy macrophages is due to
Answer
B. Ingestion of modified LDL by macrophages
28
A patient presented with difficulty breathing and coughing of few years duration. A bronchoscopic biopsy was performed. The histology showed hyperplasia of mucous glands, chronic inflammation and squamous metaplasia of bronchial epithelium. What is your probable diagnosis?
Answer
C. Chronic Bronchitis
29
Select the best response : Patient presented to Hospital with high fever, cough, shortness of breath, muscle aches, body aches, severe headaches, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting and confusion. Chest X-ray showed patchy consolidation. Sputum examination showed rod shaped structures 3-5 μm long. Culture showed filamentous forms that are 10-25 μm long. Which of the following is the most probable organism responsible for this condition.
Answer
D. Legionella pneumophila
30
Regarding Helicobacter Pylori : Read the following statements : i. Direct transmission of H pylori from one person to another through saliva, vomit or stool is very rare ii. Urea breath test is a non-invasive, accurate method to detect H pylori iii. Testing for antibodies against H pylori in blood can help in diagnosis iv. Infection by H pilori does not increase the risk of Gastric cancer v. In stool, H pylori antigens or DNA can be detected through antigen tests or PCR tests vi. Endoscopic biopsy allows direct visualization and sampling of the stomach lining to detect H pylori
Answer
D. ii, v and vi are correct
31
A liver biopsy showed the following histology : Ground glass hepatocytes, ballooning degeneration, disruption of normal architecture of liver lobules and varying degrees of inflammation.Which among the following is most likely to be the responsible agent?
Answer
B. Hepatitis B virus
32
Infection of the biliary tract by the following increases the likelihood or pigment stone formation in Gall bladder : EXCEPT
Answer
D. Group A Streptococcus (GAS)
33
Secondary membranous nephropathy may occur as an association with the following infections : Except
Answer
B. Trypanosoma Cruzi
34
On Electron Microscopy of glomeruli, subepithelial humps are characteristically seen in which of the following conditions
Answer
B. Post infectious glomerulonephritis
35
All of the following are true regarding Reed's Syndrome : Except
Answer
D. Autosomal Recessive condition
36
Regarding Diabetes Mellitus i. Type 1 is immune mediated ii. Type 2 is due to insulin resistance iii. Type 2 is associated with Major linkage to MHC class 2 genes iv. Type 2 shows insulitis in histology v. Type 1 patients are usually overweight vi. Type 1 patients may progress to diabetic ketoacidosis in absence of insulin therapy
Answer
C. i, ii, vi are correct
37
Regarding hyperthyroidism i. Heat intolerance is common ii. They can have elevated cardiac output iii. They can have increased bone density iv. They can have hypertrophy of skeletal muscle v. They can have tremor, hyperactivity, anxiety vi. Graves disease patients show diffuse hypertropy and hyperplasia of thyroid gland vii. Graves disease is an autoimmune condition
Answer
D. v, vi, vii are correct
38
Regarding Hypercortisolism i. Majority are the result of endogenous glucocorticoids ii. ACTH secreting pituitary adenomas account for majority of cases of endogenous hypercortisolism iii. Primary adrenal neoplasms are the most common causes for ACTH independent cushing syndrome iv. Increased ACTH secretion results in variable degree of nodular cortical hyperplasia of adrenal glands v. The disorder is more common in women vi. Hypotension and increased libido may be seen
Answer
B. ii, iii, iv are correct
39
Regarding Growth hormone i. Excess growth hormone causes acromegaly in children ii. Excess growth hormone causes gigantism in adults iii. In acromegaly there is hyperostosis in both the spine and hips iv. Excess growth hormone increases risk of diabetes mellitus v. Excess growth hormone increase risk of congestive heart failure vi. Excess growth hormone increases risk of hypotension
Answer
C. iii, iv, v are correct
40
The following laboratory findings were found in a patient : Peripheral smear showed spherocytes with polychromasia, reticulocyte count : 7% Albumin level : 3.4 gm/dL, LDH : 1460 U/L, unconjugated bilirubin :1.4 mg/dL, Haptoglobin : 25 mg/dL What is the most possible diagnosis?
Answer
B. Hemolytic anemia
41
Select the best response. Transient Aplastic Crisis may be seen because of infection by
Answer
A. Parvovirus
42
Select the best response. Read the following statements about chemical mediators for Neutrophil chemotaxis : i. Cytokine IL-8 is an endogenous chemotactic factor for neutrophils ii. Complement component C5a is an endogenous chematotactic factors for neutrophils iii. Arachidonic acid metabolite leukotriene B4 is an endogenous chemotactic factor for neutrophils iv. Platelet factor 4 is an endogenous chemotactic factor for neutrophils v. Nitri oxide is an endogenous chemotactic factor for neutrophils vi. MCP-1 is an endogenous chemotactic factor for neutrophils
Answer
C. ii, iii and iv is correct
43
Regarding Leukemias, select the best response : i. Cytochemical staining is useful to differentiate different leukemias ii. Western blot is useful to differentiate different types of leukemias iii. Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay is useful to differentiate different types of leukemias iv. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) is useful to detect specific genetic mutations v. Immunohistochemistry can be useful in sub-classifying leukemias vi. Flow cytometry is useful to differentiate leukemias
Answer
C. i, iv and vi are correct
44
Read the following statements about philadelphia chromosome : i. BCR-ABL fusion gene is present on the long arm of chromosome 9 ii. BCR stands for breakpoint cluster region iii. ABL stands for Abelson Murine Leukemia virus gene iv. In CML the nature of fusion of BCR gene and ABL gene is side by side fashion v. The product of the fusion gene BCR-ABL is a constitutively active protein tyrosine kinase that promotes cellular proliferation and suppresses apoptosis vi. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia patients who are philadelphia chromosome negative have better prognosis
Answer
C. ii, iii and v are correct
45
Regarding Glanzmann thrombasthenia, all are true EXCEPT:
Answer
A. It is Autosomal Dominant
46
Regarding Acute bacterial (pyogenic) Meningitis : Choose the best response : i. Escherichia Coli or Group B streptococci is the common causative agents in infants ii. CSF examination shows low glucose, high protein content and presence of neutrophils iii. The waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome results from hemorrhagic infarction of pituitary iv. Neisseria meningitides is the common causative agent in young adults v. Streptococcus pneumonia may be the causative agent in older adults
Answer
D. i, ii and iv are correct
47
A 40 year old HIV patient came to Hospital with complaints of memory loss, loss of language ability, weakness in the legs and arms and vision problems. His family says he is also showing personality changes and that all the other complaints are progressing very fast. On examination it was found that he had loss of coordination, cognitive impairment, ataxia affecting limbs and also during walking and hemiparesis. Brain biopsy was performed, histology showed areas of demyelination in a subcortical location with reactive astrocytosis and perivascular lymphocytic cuffing. Several large infected oligodendrocytes with inclusion-bearing dark nuclei or clear nucleoplasm having marginated chromatin were present in the periphery of demyelinated area. The demyelinated areas revealed small around lesions with meyelin breakdown. Numerous macrophages had infiltrated and they contained fragmented myelin. Which among the following is the most likely diagnosis
Answer
A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
48
Regarding Rheumatoid Arthritis : i. Anti CCP antibody testing is a good method to diagnose rheumatoid arthritis ii. Histology of Rheumatoid nodules show central zone of fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by a prominent rim of activated macrophages, lymphocytes and plasma cells iii. High Rheumatoid factor titers indicate a good prognosis iv. Part of spine that is commonly involved is this cervical spine v. Testing for ANA can help confirm a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis vi. Testing for CRP levels is not helpful with management of rheumatoid arthritis
Answer
D. i, ii and iv are correct
49
Read the following statement about melanocytic nevus : i. Histology of congenital melanocytic nevus shows nevus cells in dermis and around adnexa, neurovascular bundles and blood vessels ii. Histology of blue nevus shows highly dendritic melanocytes with heave pigmentation and may be associated with fibrosis iii. Histology of spitz nevus shows small round melanocytes in deep dermie with no melanin surrounded by fibrosis and dense lymphocytic infiltrate iv. Histology of halo nevus shows a dense, somewhat band like lymphocytic infiltrate present in the papillary and often reticular dermis with nests of nevus cells located centrally v. Histology of dysplastic nevus shows coalescent intra-epidermal nests of atypical melanocytes
Answer
D. i, ii and iv are correct
50
Regarding epidermolytic hyperkeratosis : i. It is autosomal dominant ii. Mutations have been found in Keratin 1 (K1) and Keratin 10 (K10) gene iii. Hallmark features are erythroderma, blistering and skin denudation iv. Clinical presentation is in the elderly age group v. Skin is prone to cytolysis and blistering vi. Histology shows orthohyperkeratosis, hypergranulosis and cytolysis of the suprabasal and granular layers vii. With correct treatment cure and normal life is possible
Answer
B. ii, iii and iv are correct
51
Who is known as the father of hand hygiene?
Answer
B. Ignaz Semmelweis
52
The bacteria that use reduced, preformed organic molecules as carbon sources are knwon as
Answer
D. Heterotrophs
53
Which of the following statement regarding bacterial spores is not true?
Answer
D. Spores of bacillus atrophaeus are used as sterilization control for plasma sterilizer
54
The following statements regarding Ethylene oxide sterilizer are all true except
Answer
C. At ETO concentration of 700 mg/l; 10-20% relative humidity; sterilization is achieved in 4 hrs at 55ºC
55
Bowie-Duck test is
Answer
B. Class II chemical indicator
56
Bacterial toxins that are coded by lysogenic phages include all except
Answer
D. Tetanolysin
57
Commercially available probiotics contain all the following except
Answer
B. Prevotella
58
Bacteriophage typing was used in the past for the typing of all except
Answer
A. Streptococcus species
59
Western blotting is the technique used for the detection of
Answer
B. Specific protein
60
Infectious agents that are transmitted through aerosols include all except
Answer
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
61
The mononuclear phagocyte system does not include
Answer
D. Endothelial cells
62
Which of the following statements does not apply to IgG?
Answer
D. Appears early in primary immune response
63
A plasma cell secretes
Answer
B. Antibody of a single specificity related to that on the surface of parent B cell
64
T cell surface receptors for antigen partly recognize
Answer
A. MHC
65
Ig idiotypes are found
Answer
D. In variable region of both heavy and light chains
66
The paracortical area of a lymph node comprises mainly
Answer
C. T cells
67
Which type of hypersensitivity cannot be transferred with serum antibody?
Answer
D. Type IV
68
The membrane attack complex consists of
Answer
C. C5b6789
69
DiGeorge Syndrome results due to a defect in
Answer
B. Thymic development
70
HAT medium is used to
Answer
D. Select hybrids in hybridoma technique
71
Bachmans intradermal test is used for the diagnosis of
Answer
B. Trichinella spiralis
72
Megaesophagus or megacolon may be associated with the chronic infections with
Answer
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
73
Man is NOT the intermediate host for
Answer
C. Taenia solium
74
Fugitive or Calabar swellings are seen in
Answer
A. Loa loa
75
Modified Trichrome staining is used for the detection of _____________ in stool sample
Answer
D. Microsporidia
76
The structures seen in filamentous fungi useful for plugging of septal pores after hyphal wounding is called
Answer
D. Woronies bodies
77
Tinea imbricata is caused by
Answer
A. Trichophyton concentricum
78
The cardinal features of mycetoma are all EXCEPT
Answer
B. Satellite lesions
79
Darlings disease is caused by
Answer
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
80
Mycotoxicosis is produced by toxigenic specifies of all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Mucor
81
Which of the following is not a good biosafety practice in a viral diagnostic laboratory?
Answer
D. Flushing untreated labwaste down laboratory sink
82
Which group of viruses usually establish latent infection?
Answer
C. Herpes viruses
83
Antiretroviral drug which inhibits integrase enzyme
Answer
C. Dolutegravir
84
A virus that enter through skin abrasion is
Answer
B. Papilloma virus
85
Which of the following pox virus infects only humans?
Answer
A. Molluscum contagiosum
86
A 30 year old nurse if found to be both HBsAg positive and HBeAg positive. The nurse most likely has
Answer
A. Acute hepatitis and is infectious
87
Each of the following clinical syndromes is associated with infection by Picorna viruses EXCEPT
Answer
B. Mononucleosis
88
The virus has a segmented double stranded RNA and a double shelled capsid. Identify the family of the virus.
Answer
D. Reoviridae
89
Which of the following disease lacks a known vector?
Answer
A. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
90
Which of the following symptom is not typical of influenza?
Answer
D. Rash
91
All the following are members of HACEK group EXCEPT
Answer
A. Acinetobacter spp
92
True about transmission of Salmonella Typhi
Answer
B. Humans are the only natural hosts
93
Malta Fever is also called as
Answer
C. Undulant fever
94
A newborn baby was being fed with honey and developed flaccid paralysis, diplopia, dysphagia which could be due to
Answer
B. Clostridium botulinum
95
Malignant pustule is the term used for
Answer
D. Anthrax of the skin
96
Resistance to both Isoniazid and Rifampicin with or without resistance to other first line antitubercular agent is called
Answer
B. MDR TB
97
Travellers diarrhoea is caused by
Answer
A. ETEC
98
All the following cause zoonotic infection EXCEPT
Answer
C. Bordetella pertussis
99
Mycoplasma have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
Answer
D. Susceptibility to Penicillin G
100
Long term carriage and shedding is most likely to occur after gastrointestinal infection with
Answer
B. Salmonella Typhi
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