| Post Name | Professor in Surgery - Govt Homoeopathic Medical Colleges |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 054/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 718/2024 |
| Date of Test | 20 June 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
In defining shock and its pathophysiology following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
B. Cardiac output is reduced in all forms of shock
2
In understanding the pathophysiology of shock following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
A. During compensated shock phase Reperfusion injury is rare
3
In Classification of Haemorrhagic shock (ATLS/ACS) blood volume loss in class II is
Answer
C. 15-30%
4
Reactionary haemorrhage is
Answer
Question Cancelled
5
Following statements regarding Hypothermia are TRUE EXCEPT,
Answer
C. Usually corrected by compensatory mechanism
6
Normal Shock Index is
Answer
A. 0.5 - 0.7
7
Regarding Peri operative Blood transfusion indication what is the level of Hb for transfusion if there is no ongoing bleeding
Answer
B. 6 gm/dl
8
ABO Compatibility is not required in following
Answer
C. Platelet transfusion
9
40 year old female presented with profuse bleeding due to deficiency of fibrinogen. What is your ideal blood product
Answer
D. Cryoprecipitate
10
In Massive blood transfusion
Answer
B. 1:1:1 protocol means adequate fluid between the transfusions
11
Wound healing occurs by granulation, contraction and re-epithelisation in
Answer
C. Secondary healing
12
The term Morel-Lavallee lesion is used to describe
Answer
D. Haemolymphatic collection between the fascial planes in closed degloving injuries
13
Which of the following is not a common feature of acute compartment syndrome?
Answer
A. Absent distal pulses
14
Type II necrotising soft tissue infections are characterised by
Answer
B. Monomicrobial infections by beta hemolytic streptococci
15
The following statement regarding scar contracture is false
Answer
B. Reconstruction with flaps offers the only curative surgery for contracture
16
Wound following appendicectomy for acute appendicitis is an example of a
Answer
C. Contaminated wound
17
The following statement regarding abscess is false
Answer
A. If the abscess cavity is left open to drain freely systemic antibiotics are mandatory
18
Intra-abdominal abscess following laparotomy and bowel resection
Answer
B. Usually results from anastomotic leakage
19
The following statement regarding felon is true
Answer
C. It can cause terminal phalangeal osteomyelitis
20
Regarding surgical management of paronychia which statement is false?
Answer
B. Cutting of cuticle should always be performed for free drainage of pus
21
Major cause of preventable death among Trauma patients is
Answer
B. Airway obstruction
22
"LEMON" - Mnemonic to assess
Answer
D. Airway difficulty in Trauma patients
23
'SALT' protocol used in
Answer
A. TRIAGE
24
'Level 4' Trauma care centre means
Answer
C. Trauma Surgeon not available
25
'FAST' assessment has been positively identify the presence of as little as a ________ peritoneal fluid
Answer
B. 250 ml
26
In 'FAST' scoring system 96% of patients requiring Laparotomy in
Answer
A. 3 or more score
27
Maximum Rate of heat transfer with available rewarming method in
Answer
A. Cardiopulmonary bypass
28
'Reverse Triage' used in
Answer
A. To Swiftly return able war fighters to combat
29
True in Tension pnmothorae
Answer
B. Rapid insertion of large bore canala into IInd inter costal space
30
'Sucking chest wound' is
Answer
A. Open defect in the chest > 3 cm
31
All are symptoms of DVT except
Answer
A. Highgrade fever
32
In modified wells criteria for predicting DVT have highest score in
Answer
C. Intravenous drug abuse
33
Investigation of choice for Diagnosis of DVT is
Answer
A. Venous Duplex ultrasound
34
Indication of need for thrombolysis / Embotectomy is in pulmonary embolism is
Answer
B. Severe right heart strain and shortness of breath
35
Compression based prophylactic measures should be avoided in patients with
Answer
C. Patients with DVT
36
In Burns after 24 hr fluid administration in adults
Answer
B. Colloids 20 - 60% of calculated plasma volume
37
Formula for fluid management in burns in children
Answer
B. Shriner's Cincinnati
38
Wolfe's grafts are harvested using a
Answer
B. Scalpel
39
Strepto Coccus beta hemolytius is an absolute contra indication for skin grafting because
Answer
C. Fibrinolysin inhibits fibrin adhesion
40
Charges to intestine due to burns
Answer
A. Micro vascular damage and Ischemia to get Mucose
41
Which is high grade salivary gland carcinoma
Answer
B. Squamous cell Carcinoma
42
"Dumb bell" Parotid tumour is
Answer
B. Tumour from deep lobe of Parotid
43
In Warthin's Tumour M:F is
Answer
C. 7:1
44
Incidence of 'LN' mets in mucoepidemiod carcinoma of Parotid
Answer
A. 50 %
45
'Hot Spot' in Tc Scan in which salivary gland tumours
Answer
A. Oncocytoma
46
'Extended Radical Parotidectomy is
Answer
B. Temporal bone and skin overlying parotid gland with parotid gland
47
'Sialocoel' is
Answer
B. Post Parotidectomy complication
48
Gustatory Sweating is
Answer
C. 1 and 2
49
Landmarks for Facial Nerve in Parotid Surgery is
Answer
C. All of the above
50
Most important aspect of Facial Nerve injury rehabilitation is
Answer
B. Corneal protection
51
Plummers disease is
Answer
A. enlarged nodular thyroid containing one or more autonomously functioning nodules leading to a state of hyperthyroidism
52
Which among the following is/are example/s of granulomatous thyroiditis i. Chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis ii. Hashimoto's disease iii. de Quervain's thyroiditis iv. Riedel's thyroiditis v. Tuberculous thyroiditis
Answer
D. iii
53
All are true about Positron Emission Tomography (PET) in thyroid except
Answer
D. FDG uptake increases and lesions become positive on PET scans even if disease concentrates iodine
54
660-kDa glycosylated protein that acts as a precursor protein for the active iodinated forms of thyroid hormone is
Answer
A. Thyroglobulin
55
Identify the correct statement / statements and select the appropriate answer i. Plain films have previously been used to assess tracheal compression and deviation ii. The modality of choice now in assessment of airway is CT scanning iii. CT scanning is useful in metastatic disease in the neck iv. Core biopsy can be useful in rapid diagnosis of widely invasive malignant disease or in the diagnosis of lymphadenopathy
Answer
B. i, ii, iii, iv
56
All are indications for thyroidectomy except
Answer
C. Bethesda 0
57
Identify the correctly matched pair in respect to planning thyroidectomy
Answer
A. Control of toxicity Total thyroidectomy Subtotal thyroidectomy immediate immediate
58
DTCs - identify the correct statements i. follicular variant of PTC (fvPTC) has a similar prognosis to classical PTC ii. Considered "differentiated" because they arise from the thyroid follicular epithelial cells and generally retain the ability to organify iodine iii. PDTC and ATC are also thought to arise from follicular cells but are more clinically aggressive compared to DTC due to their loss of differentiation. iv. MTC arise from the neuroendocrine parafollicular C cells
Answer
A. All are true
59
All are follicular epithelial differentiated thyroid malignancy except
Answer
D. Medullary carcinoma
60
Mark the false statement about the following statements
Answer
D. The voice quality remains unacceptable even after avoiding denervation and related muscle atrophy
61
In differentiated thyroid malignancies all are true except
Answer
A. Suppressed Tg < 0.2 mg / ml and stimulated Tg < 1 mg/dl is considered as excellent response to treatment
62
Post thyroidectomy follow up after treatment, select the true statements i. After the first post treatment scan, low- and some intermediate-risk patients with negative TSH-stimulated Tg and cervical ultrasound do not require routine diagnostic whole body radioiodine scans ii. Diagnostic whole-body scans 6 to 12 months after remnant ablation may be value in the follow-up of patients with high-or intermediate-risk patients with higher risk features. iii. Scenarios for follow-up scans include patients with abnormal uptake outside the thyroid bed on post therapy scan iv. Those with poorly informative post ablation and patients with Tg antibodies
Answer
A. i, ii, iii, iv
63
All are true regarding role of radiotherapy in metastatic thyroid carcinomas except
Answer
D. Stereotactic radiotherapy and intensity - modulated radiation therapy has no role in metastatic lesions
64
Active surveillance for DTC - select appropriate answers
Answer
D. Japanese studies have included highly selected patients with no more than 1.5 cm unifocal PTCs and papillary thyroid microcarcinomas are enrolled into a regimented active surveillance program
65
DTCs at higher risk for recurrence and/or disease-specific mortality. Such scenarios include the following except
Answer
D. Unifocal unilateral DTC less than 1 cm
66
Muscle responsible for retraction of nipple is?
Answer
C. Myerholtz
67
Probability of malignancy in BI-RADS 4a lesion is?
Answer
C. More than 2% to less than or equal to 10%
68
Indications of MRI in diagnosis of carcinoma breast is? (i) Discordant findings in mammogram (ii) Distinguish scar from recurrence (iii) Women with breast cancer who are BRCA positive (iv) Women with implants
Answer
D. All of the above
69
All of the following statements are true except?
Answer
C. Transverse slit like retraction is seen in carcinoma
70
In the molecular classification of carcinoma breast Basal type is?
Answer
A. Triple negative
71
Lucknow-Cardiff visual analogue scale is used to assess?
Answer
B. Breast nodularity
72
Which of the following conditions has the highest risk of turning malignant?
Answer
B. Atypical lobular hyperplasia
73
50 year old nulliparous female presented with 6x4 cm hard lump in the right breast with pectoral fixity and 1x1 cm hard ipsilateral axiliary lymph node. What is the stage of the disease?
Answer
B. T3 N1 M0
74
Most common molecular subtype of breast cancer?
Answer
A. Luminal A
75
What is the standard surgical treatment of DCIS?
Answer
D. Simple Mastectomy/BCS with radiation
76
Which of the following gene mutation is strongly associated with hereditary breast cancer?
Answer
D. BRCA1
77
First line of hormonal therapy for post menopausal ER positive lady is?
Answer
A. Anastrazole
78
Most common cause of male breast cancer is?
Answer
B. Estrogen exposure
79
Post Mastectomy radiation is contraindicated in all except
Answer
D. Polyarteritis Nodosa
80
Regarding DCIS which is not true?
Answer
B. Papillary and cribriform are higher grade lesions
81
Silent appendicitis is seen in which location of appendix?
Answer
B. Retrocaecal
82
All of the following are differential diagnosis for acute appendicitis except?
Answer
D. None
83
Which component has got highest score in Alvarado Score in acute appendicitis?
Answer
B. Leukocytosis
84
Regarding appendicitis in pregnancy, false is :
Answer
B. Conservative management by antibiotics should be tried
85
Most common post operative complication following appendicectomy is
Answer
B. Wound Infection
86
Strangulation can occurs without obstruction in
Answer
B. Richter's hernia
87
Which of the following is not an early complication of inguinal hernia surgery?
Answer
B. Seroma
88
All of the following are false regarding stapled haemorrhoidopexy except
Answer
A. Recurrence rates are higher than following conventional haemorrhoidectomy
89
All of the following are early post operative complications in haemorrhoidectomy, except
Answer
A. Incontinence
90
Indications for haemorrhoidectomy are (i) third-and fourth-degree haemorrhoids (ii) second-degree haemorrhoids that have not been cured by non-operative treatments (iii) 'Mixed' haemorrhoids when the external haemorrhoid is well defined (iv) bleeding causing anaemia
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
91
Investigation of choice for Fistula-in-Ano?
Answer
B. MRI
92
Which is not true about Fistula-in-Ano?
Answer
A. 2/3rd of patients undergoing incision and drainage of an anorectal abscess may develop Fistula-in-Ano later
93
Most common type of Fistula-in-Ano?
Answer
C. Inter-sphincteric
94
What is true about Seton placement in management of Fistula-in-Ano
Answer
A. LIFT procedure can be performed following seton placement
95
The drug used in medical management of Fistula-in-Ano with a closure rate of 36% following 54 weeks treatment is
Answer
D. Infliximab
96
Which is not true about acute cholecystitis?
Answer
A. About 65% with acute cholecystitis have gall stones
97
Which of the following structures does not form the boundary of Calot's Triangle?
Answer
C. Inferior surface of the liver
98
Biradiate sign seen in CT image of a patient with gall stone is called as?
Answer
B. Seagull sign
99
USG in a 40-year-old female with right hypochondrial pain and vomitting showed a stone in the bile duct. Which of the following will not be present in this patient?
Answer
D. Murphy's sign
100
Which of the following does not come under grade II acute cholecystitis in Tokyo Consensus guidelines for grading severity?
Answer
B. Platelet count less than 100000 mm³
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