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Kerala PSC Professor in Surgery – Govt Homoeopathic Medical Colleges Previous Question Paper – 078/2024/OL

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Post NameProfessor in Surgery - Govt Homoeopathic Medical Colleges
Question Paper Code078/2024/OL
Category Code625/2023
Date of Test28 June 2024
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
All are examples of concealed hemorrhage causing hypovolemic shock except
Answer
C. Head Injury
2
Best clinical indicator to determine fluid resuscitation in shock is
Answer
B. Urine output
3
Golden period for a traumatic wound is
Answer
C. 6 Hrs
4
Among the things used for Donning, all are true except
Answer
D. Three layer cap
5
Regarding massive Blood transfusion which among the following is true
Answer
C. Replace entire circulating volume in 24 Hrs
6
Class II Hemorrhagic shock is Blood lose of
Answer
B. 1 L
7
Clean contaminated wounds include all except.
Answer
D. Un complicated inguinal Hernia repair
8
Most common type of shock
Answer
A. Hemorrhagic
9
Grade IV southampton wound score
Answer
B. Pus/purulent discharge
10
All are blood substitutes except
Answer
C. PVC Hb
11
All are parameters of 'qSOFA score except
Answer
C. P.R > 120/min
12
Massive pulmonary embolism is an example of
Answer
A. Obstructive shock
13
Scrofula is
Answer
B. T.B. infection of lymph node
14
Anti inflammatory cytokines are all except
Answer
B. TNF-α
15
In S.S.I. protocol the first dose of prophylactic antibiotic is given
Answer
A. At the time of induction of anesthesia
16
Chronic paronychia is caused by
Answer
C. Candida
17
Factors presipitating a/c compartment syndrome include all except
Answer
B. Limb elevation
18
Complications of massive Blood transfusion are all except
Answer
B. Hyper calcemia
19
Methods to prevent contractures are all except
Answer
D. Absolute rest
20
Features of Type II Necrotizing fasciitis include all except
Answer
D. Inj. cefoperazone is the choice
21
During Airway evaluation in poly trauma patients following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
D. LEMON assessment criteria is used for deciding the Oxygen flow concentration
22
Endotracheal intubation in a case of head injury is indicated when GCS is below
Answer
B. 8
23
In tension pneumothorax, following statement are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
C. Size of the needle in Emergency needle thorocostomy is 22 G or 23 G
24
In Flail chest.
Answer
C. On inspiration loose segment is displaced inwards
25
In cardio pulmonary resuscitation following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
A. Chest compressions at the rate of 60-90/min
26
As per America Heart Association, order of CPR is
Answer
B. C - A - B
27
FAST refers to
Answer
D. USG for blunt abdominal trauma
28
In FAST following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
D. e FAST is electronic documentation of FAST findings for retrieving the data electronically
29
Regarding TRIAGE following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
C. Triage is a static process
30
Overtriage is defined as
Answer
D. Proportion of patients without serious injuries transported to major trauma center
31
D V T is associated with all EXCEPT
Answer
A. Thrombin III deficiency
32
In DVT following statements are true EXCEPT
Answer
C. Stasis is the single most important causative factor
33
Regarding DVT following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
B. In the post operative period patient should be encouraged to walkup early and sit in a chair to prevent DVT
34
Regarding DVT following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
D. CT venography is done to confirm the diagnosis
35
Regarding DVT following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
B. Accepted INR range for oral anticoagulant treatment is 1.5 - 1.9
36
Regarding BURNS, following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
D. In Muir and Barclay formula for calculating the colloid requirement, TBSA is multiplied by a factor of 2 and body weight in Kg for one portion
37
Regarding BURNS following statements is not TRUE
Answer
D. Lund and Browder chart is usually used to assess TBSA in adult population
38
Regarding BURNS following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
C. Cardiac muscle damage identified by raised cardiac enzymens is common in low tension electricity injury
39
Regarding Skin grafting following statement is not TRUE
Answer
A. Full thickness graft (Wolfe grafts) is generally preferred in larger area grafting since it produces better cosmetic outcome
40
Following terminology is related to Skin grafting EXCEPT
Answer
A. Osmosis
41
Most common salivary gland tumor
Answer
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
42
Most common malignant salivary gland tumor
Answer
C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
43
What is the relation of size the salivary gland and incidence of malignant tumours ?
Answer
B. Size is inversely proportional to malignancy incidence
44
As per the WHO 2017 CLASSIFICATION of salivary gland tumors all TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
A. Clear cell carcinoma is not a salivary gland tumor
45
Following are accepted types of Parotidectomy, EXCEPT
Answer
A. Enucleation
46
Prevention of Frey's syndrome after parotidectomy can be achieved by reconstruction using following structures, EXCEPT
Answer
B. Tensor fascia lata flap
47
Regarding Freys syndrome after parotidectomy following statement is correct
Answer
A. Due to aberrant regrowth of parasympathetic fibers into skin
48
Following are common complications of parotidectomy, Except
Answer
B. Pterygoid plexus injury
49
Regarding treatment of facial nerve injury following statement are correct, Except
Answer
C. Synkinesis is an early sign of guided regeneration
50
Regarding treatment of facial nerve injury following statement is not TRUE
Answer
D. Temporalis muscle is utilized for both Dynamic and static sling surgery
51
A 50-year old man develops acute pancreatitis due to alcohol abuse Hypera-mylasemia resolves by the third day after admission. By the eighth hospital day, the patient is noted to have recurrent fever (38.5°C), progressive leukocytosis (18,500 WB/mm3), and tachypnea. The most appropriate management includes which as the next step
Answer
B. CT guided aspiration of peripancreatic fluid collections
52
A 54 yr old female patient presented with c/o recurrent upper abdominal pain. USG showed multiple small cystic swellings with lobulated margin in head of pancreas. It appeared as multisystemic with 'bunch of grapes' appearance and a grossly dilated pancreatic duct. Most probable diagnosis is
Answer
B. Large duct variety Intraductal Papillary Mucinous Neoplasm
53
60 year edentulous male has Ca of alveolar margin on left side 4 nodes are palpable on the level 2 on left side and 1 node 1Ɨ2cm s on the level 2 on right side
Answer
B. Segmental mandibulectomy + Modified Radical block dissection on left side and Modified block on right side + PMMC flap
54
The Tumor which may occur in the residual breast or overlying skin following wide local excision and radiotherapy for mammary carcinoma is
Answer
D. Angiosarcoma
55
A 67 year old man is investigated for biliary colic and a 4.8 cm abdominal aortic aneurysm is identified. Which of the following statements relating to this condition is untrue ?
Answer
A. They are true aneurysms and have all 3 layers of arterial wall
56
15 year body is diagnosed as having Medullary Thyroid Ca. His younger sister who is 3 months shows mutation in RET-Proto oncogene mutation at codon 922. Thyroid is clinically normal. Calcifonin is normal. No rise of calculation even with stimulation by pentagastrin and calcium. Advice :
Answer
D. Total thyroidectomy before 1yr
57
On routine life insurance screening, an asymptomatic 45-year-old male is found to have a serum calcium level of 12.5 mg/dL. Serum is obtained for immunoreactive parathyroid hormone level and this is 400 mEq/mL (normal range<64mEq/mL). These findings are most consistent with a diagnosis of which of the following ?
Answer
A. Primary hyperparathyroidism
58
A 45-year-old female is found to have a 2cm solid nodule in her right adrenal gland at the time of an abdominal CT scan following an auto accident. With regard to the adrenal lesion, she is asymptomatic and it is found to be nonfunctional on evaluation. You would recommend which of the following ?
Answer
C. Follow up CT scan in 1 to 3 months and Excisional biopsy via laparoscopic approach
59
Treatment of choice for a patient with accidental crush injury to the CBD involving 50% of the circumference identified on the intra operative cholangiogram
Answer
D. Roux en Y Choledochojejunostomy
60
Most common parotid tumour in infants is
Answer
A. Haemangioma
61
A 65 years old gentle man presented with progressive wt loss and generalized wasting. He also complained of foul smelling vomitus of 8 months duration. O/E there was an upper midline scar following a laparatomy 15 years back and no mass. What is the most probable diagnosis
Answer
D. Gastrojejunocolic fistula
62
A 23 year old man is stabbed in the right upper quadrant and is hemodynamically unstable. A laparotomy is performed and the liver has some extensive superficial lacerations and is bleeding profusely. Patient becomes progressively more hemodynamically unstable. Which of the following is the best management option ?
Answer
A. Pack the liver and close the abdomen
63
Best incision to explore the chest in massive haemothorax due to bullet injury.
Answer
A. Anterolateral thoracotomy
64
A 24-year-old computer technician notes a progressive increase in size of left Jaw. X-rays are taken. Biopsy is done. Diagnosis of ameloblastoma is established. Next step
Answer
D. Excision of lesions with 1-2 cm of normal mandible
65
A 24 year old male who had a penetrating injury to neck at the root of neck. Patient is haemodynamically stable. What is the next best line of approach
Answer
D. Angiography and exploration
66
What is tomosynthesis ?
Answer
A. 3D mammography
67
Imaging feature suggestive of breast carcinoma on mammogram 1. irregular spiculated mass 2. Fine pleomorphic micro calcification 3. Architectural distortion
Answer
D. 1, 2, 3
68
Indication for surgical excision of fibroadenoma 1. More than 30 yrs 2. Suspicious features such as atypia 3. Size more than 5 cm 4. Family history of breast carcinoma
Answer
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
69
What is the treatment of choice of cystosarcoma phyllodes
Answer
D. Wide local excision with 2cm margin with overlying skin and under lying pectoralis major muscle
70
Poland syndrome present as
Answer
C. Unilateral variable loss of breast issue pectoralis major, minor and serratus anterior muscle as well as several ribs
71
Most common source of referred pain causing significant breast pain
Answer
A. Scapulo thoracic bursitis
72
Which of the statement are true regarding metastatic work up ? 1. PET CT scan is a must for metastatic work up 2. CECT of chest abdomen and pelvis and isotope bones scan is required in locally advanced breast carcinoma 3. Early breast carcinoma metastatic work is done only if patients show symptoms suggestive of metastatasis/increased Serum alkaline phostphatase 4. No workup is required in case of Early breast carcinoma
Answer
C. 2, 3
73
Correct statement/statements of in case of lobular carcinoma in situ 1. High risk benign lesion not a cancer 2. Is a malignant lesion 3. Develops in females only 4. Anatomic precursor of carcinoma
Answer
B. 1, 3
74
What lymph nodes are removed in Schanlons mastectomy
Answer
B. Level 1 & 2
75
Which of these is not an example of hereditary breast carcinoma
Answer
C. FAP
76
A 40 yr old male with a 2 cm breast lump with pectoralis major involvement was confirmed to have carcinoma breast with no axillary lymph nodes. What surgery should be done ?
Answer
B. MRM with excision of involved portion of muscle
77
What is the guideline by American Society of Clinical Oncology regarding adjuvant endocrine theray for breast cancer
Answer
C. Systemic Tamoxifen for premenopausal and postmenopausal women for 5 years. Afeter 5 years if still premenopausal add 5 years more of tamoxifen
78
Molecular Classification of breast carcinoma includes except
Answer
C. Claudun high
79
60 year old female with locally advanced breast cancer undergoing NACT after 2 cycles is progressive disease. What should be the next step ?
Answer
B. Second line chemotherapy
80
What is the absolute contraindication for radiation in breast carcinoma ?
Answer
D. Pregnancy
81
Most commonly isolated organism in perforated appendicitis
Answer
A. E. Coli
82
Which of the following is an advantages of laparoscopic appendicectomy compared to open appendicectomy ?
Answer
C. Reduced risk of wound infection
83
At open operation a normal appendix is found. What is the most common procedure a surgeon should do if he finds a normal appendix ?
Answer
B. Removal of appendix
84
In the adult male, which of the following condition is not a differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis ?
Answer
A. Mesenteric cyst
85
A 24 year old man, present to the emergency department with a 10- hour history of abdominal pain associated with nausea and vomiting. On examination, the patient is lying still and has tenderness with guarding in the right iliac fossa. His temperature is 37.6 degree Celsius. He has no significant past medical history. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
Answer
A. appendicitis
86
The following structures may be injured during surgery to repair an inguinal hernia
Answer
A. The ilioinguinal, genitofemoral, iliohypogastric, and lateral femoral cutaneous nerves
87
At surgery for a right inguinal hernia, a 72 year old man is found to have a hernia sac that is not independent of the bowel wall. The cecum forms part of the wall of the sac. Such a hernia is properly referred to as which of the following ?
Answer
B. Sliding
88
58 year old male presented to surgical opd with c/o bleeding PR. The attending surgeon on examination found GRADE ii HEMORRHOIDS AT 3'O CLOCK position. On further history, he had undergone angioplasty and is on antiplatelets. At the time of examination, there was no active bleeding and advised high fiber diet and oral fluids. Even after 8 weeks of conservative management patient has a history of bleeding, so the surgeon decided to proceed with interventional methods. Which is the most suitable method for the patient.
Answer
C. sclerotherapy
89
The most common complication following open hemorrhoidectomy is
Answer
A. hemorrhage
90
Mrs. Thulasi 48 year old female diagnosed with grade III hemorrhoids and is planned for stapler hemorrhoidectomy, which of the below is false regarding the given treatment
Answer
B. can be used for both internal and external hemorrhoids
91
60 yr old male known case of diabetes presented to the surgery casualty with severe abdominal pain, the attending surgical resident diagnosed it as a perianal abscess and did drainage for the same under local anesthesia. 8 weeks later he presented to surgery OPD with persistent discharge from the perianal region, the attending surgeon noted fistula in ano on examination. What is the incidence of the above presentation ?
Answer
D. 50%
92
Which of the following is not a goal fistula treatment ?
Answer
D. none of the above
93
Most common type of fistula in ano according to Park classification
Answer
A. Type I
94
40 year old female presented to casualty with abdominal pain. The attending doctor after evaluation diagnosed as chronic cholecystitis, which among the following is not a feature of chronic cholecystitis ?
Answer
B. pain for > 24 hrs
95
Which among the following is true regarding Ultrasound in a/c Cholecystitis
Answer
D. all of the above
96
Among the investigation used for acute cholecystitis which is false
Answer
B. CT scan is more sensitive than USG
97
80 year old male with CVA presented to surgical emergency with USg abdomen showing acute acalculous cholecystitis. Which is false among the following
Answer
C. HIDA scan is 100% specific
98
During laparoscopic cholecystectomy surgeon noticed a Calot node, which structure lies beneath the calot node
Answer
B. Cystic artery
99
Which statement is true regarding goodsalls rule ?
Answer
B. A fistula with an external opening anterior to an imaginary transverse line across the anus has its internal opening at the same radial position and for an external opening posterior to this line, the internal opening is in the midline posteriolrly with a horseshoe track
100
Most common fistula in ano according to Park's classification
Answer
B. Intersphincteric fistula

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