| Post Name | Project Officer |
|---|---|
| Department | Kerala State Co- Operative Federation for Fisheries Devlp Ltd/Apex Societies |
| Question Paper Code | 148/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 754/2025, 755/2025 |
| Date of Test | 20 August 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Male sharks are claspers for mating. These structures are modified
Answer
B. Pelvic fins
2
When was the National Biodiversity Board established by the Government of India ?
Answer
C. 2003
3
Which is the dominant habitat in most tropical estuaries ?
Answer
B. Mangroves
4
When an individual of a given species possesses both male and female reproductive organs, or converts from one sex to the other during its lifehistory, it is called a
Answer
A. Hermaphrodite
5
Oral incubation of eggs and embryos in fish is termed
Answer
A. Mouthbrooding
6
Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning (PSP) is commonly associated with
Answer
C. Bivalve molluscs
7
Osmoconformers are marine invertebrates that can
Answer
B. Keep body fluid osmotic concentration equal to seawater
8
Starfish, brittle stars, sea urchin, sea cucumbers, sea lilies and sand dollars are collectively called
Answer
C. Echinoderms
9
The branch of zoology dealing with fish is called
Answer
B. Ichthyology
10
The earliest development instar of crustaceans is
Answer
B. Nauplius
11
As per IUCN, which one of the following fish is endangered in India ?
Answer
D. Tor malabaricus
12
Which one of the following is not a Ramsar site ?
Answer
D. Pulicat lake
13
Indian’s current marine fish landings are
Answer
A. Below MSY
14
Which is the most landed fish in India as per the latest data ?
Answer
B. Indian mackerel
15
Among the following, which is the most prevalent fishing gear in the riverine fishery of India ?
Answer
A. Gillnet
16
Select the most abundant seaweeds in Indian coast.
Answer
C. Brown seaweed
17
India’s first MSC certified fishery is
Answer
B. Short-neck clam fishery of Ashtamudi lake
18
Murrel population in the wetlands of Kerala is decreasing because of
Answer
D. Habitat degradation
19
Select the best management practice to improve fish production in reservoirs.
Answer
A. Stock enhancement practices
20
Sport fishing in India is practiced using
Answer
C. Angling set
21
Which one is not dragged gear ?
Answer
C. Scrape Net
22
The CIFT V-form double slotted otter boards is developed for
Answer
A. Trawl fishery
23
Find out the odd one
Answer
D. Trawler
24
The scientific name of orange spotted grouper whose package of practice for seed production and farming developed by CMFRI, Kochi is
Answer
B. Epinephelus coioides
25
Which type of cut is not used to shape the netting ?
Answer
C. O-cut
26
What is the correct sequence of the formation of pyrite in the culture ponds ? i. The interaction between ferrous and ferric iron with the sulphide and elemental sulphur ii. The bacterial reduction of sulphate to sulphide iii. Partial oxidation of the sulphide to elemental sulphur Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer
C. ii, iii and i
27
What type of aquaculture best describes the use of the byproducts, including waste, from one aquatic species as inputs for another ?
Answer
B. Integrated multi-trophic aquaculture
28
Ipomoea is a
Answer
C. Marginal weed
29
The main principle of biofloc technology is
Answer
D. Nutrient recycling through the enhancement of the carbon-to-nitrogen ratio
30
Which of the following statements are incorrect about eutrophicated water ? i. Its surface water is rich with plant nutrients ii. It is oxygen rich iii. It can lead to algal bloom iv. High water transparency Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer
B. ii and iv
31
Which of the following has relatively higher nitrogen content among them ?
Answer
A. Poultry manure
32
Organism that helps to reduce ammonia load in a bio-filter
Answer
B. Nitrosomonas
33
Maximum recommended (as per CAA) stocking density for culture of Penaeus vannamei in freshwater/inland farms
Answer
C. 60 nos/m2
34
Mullets are best described as
Answer
C. Omnivore filter feeders
35
Consider the following sentences Statement (1) : Unionized hydrogen sulphide is toxic to fish. Statement (2) : The ions resulting from dissociation of hydrogen sulphide are more toxic than unionized ammonia. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer
A. Statement (1) is true but Statement (2) is false
36
The process of adding essential nutrients to contaminated sites to enhance the natural biodegradation capacity of indigenous microorganisms is termed as
Answer
D. Biostimulation
37
‘Jayanti’ is a what type of variety of fish ?
Answer
B. Genetically improved rohu
38
Which among the following is the most widely cultured coldwater fish species in India ?
Answer
D. Rainbow trout
39
The optimum soil organic carbon required in shrimp ponds is
Answer
B. 1.5 – 2.0%
40
What happens to hydrogen ion concentration when CO2 levels rise in water ?
Answer
B. [H+] increases and lowers the pH
41
When calculating the mooring grid design for a battery of open-sea floating cages, the primary force component responsible for structural displacement and tension stress on the anchor lines is
Answer
B. Hydrodynamic drag force caused by the combination of peak tidal currents and wave action
42
In a Recirculating Aquaculture System (RAS), the primary function of a biofilter is to facilitate the biological conversion of
Answer
D. Ammonia to Nitrite and then to Nitrate ions
43
Why is a degassing column essential in intensive RAS operations ?
Answer
A. To strip out excess dissolved Carbon Dioxide (CO2) accumulated from fish respiration
44
To minimize structural damage and prevent fish escape during an impending severe marine storm or cyclonic event, modern offshore aquaculture operations utilize which specialized cage technology ?
Answer
B. Submersible or submersible-tension leg cage systems
45
What is the primary technical advantages of using an ‘Extruder’ over a standard ‘Pellet Mill’ for manufacturing modern fish feeds ?
Answer
C. Extrusion cooking allows precise control over pellet buoyancy (making floating, sinking, or slow-sinking feeds)
46
Why is a “Vacuum Coater” utilized in modern high-energy fish feed processing ?
Answer
D. To force high levels of liquid lipids/oils deep into the micro-pores of extruded pellets
47
Carps lack a true structural stomach with acid secretion. How does this anatomical feature influence their feeding behaviour and feed management ?
Answer
A. They benefit more from frequent, small-quantity feeding sessions rather than single large daily meals
48
Which fatty acids are uniquely essential for marine carnivorous fish and must be provided via marine lipids (fish oil) ?
Answer
C. Eicosapentaenoic Acid (EPA, 20:5n-3) and Docosahexaenoic Acid (DHA, 22:6n-3)
49
What role does Cholesterol play in the formulation of feeds for penaeid shrimp ?
Answer
B. It is an essential nutrient required for physiological moulting, cell membranes and hormone synthesis, as shrimp cannot synthesize it de novo
50
In marine cage culture of carnivorous fish like Asian Seabass (Lates calcarifer), “shooting” or regular size-grading of the stock is a critical management practice to prevent
Answer
C. Cannibalism and highly skewed size distribution at harvest
51
In a zero-exchange biofloc system, the theoretical optimum Carbon-to-Nitrogen (C:N) ratio required to completely assimilate 1 g of Total Ammonia Nitrogen (TAN) into heterotrophic bacterial biomass is approximately
Answer
C. 15:1 to 20:1
52
In marine pearl culture using Pinctada fucata, what forms the core matrix around which the pearl nacre is secreted ?
Answer
B. A spherical shell bead nucleus along with a piece of mantle donor tissue
53
What is the primary ecological risk associated with locating intensive fish cage farms in shallow, poorly flushed coastal bays or lagoons with minimal tidal flushing ?
Answer
D. Benthic organic enrichment leading to anoxic “dead zones” beneath the cages
54
Seaweeds cultivated in proximity to fish cages in Integrated Multi-Trophic Aquaculture (IMTA) systems serve what main environmental purpose ?
Answer
A. They extract inorganic dissolved nutrients (Nitrogen and Phosphorus) excreted by the fish
55
From a financial management perspective, feed costs typically account for what percentage of total Operational Expenses (OPEX) in intensive aquaculture operations ?
Answer
C. 50 to 70%
56
Assertion : Before stocking, the ponds should be dried, ploughed and excessive silt should be removed from the ponds. Reason :At high temperature, hydrogen sulphide, methane are generated from the decomposition of the sediments.
Answer
A. Both the assertion and the reason are correct. And the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
57
Match the following pH level in List - I with their respective lime dose in List -II List - I List - II pH Lime dose (kg/ ha) a. 4.0 i. 700 b. 4.5-5.5 ii. 200 c. 5.5-6.5 iii. 500 d. 6.5-7.5 iv. 1000
Answer
D. a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
58
Pick the odd statement about vertical jar hatchery.
Answer
A. Need high water requirement
59
Which of the following is the preferred shape of bangla bundh ?
Answer
C. Trapezoidal shape
60
Which of the following statements are correct regarding shrimp broodstock management ? i. Eyestalk ablation is used to induce spawning in shrimps. ii. Loss of hemolymph in shrimp brooders leads to inferior quality seed. iii. Eyestalk ablation reduces the secretion of Gonad-Inhibiting Hormone (GIH), thereby promoting ovarian maturation
Answer
B. Only i and iii
61
Assertion :The maturity of the fishes can be accelerated by rearing the brooders in ponds having depth of 2-2.5m. Reason : Brooders generally die or show poor maturation due to increased temperature.
Answer
D. The assertion is false, but the reason is true
62
Assertion :Carp fry raised on phytoplankton alone is very weak and the survival is very poor. Reason :Phytoplankton organisms have a resistant cell wall, which is indigestible by tender fry.
Answer
A. Both the assertion and the reason are correct. And the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
63
Which of the following produces ecdysterone in shrimps?
Answer
C. Y-organ
64
Match the following common names of ornamental fishes in List – I with their scientific names in List –II List – I List – II Common names Scientific names a. Angel fish i. Brachydanio rerio b. Sword tail ii. Puntius denisoni c. Zebra danio iii. Xiphophorus sp. d. Red-line torpedo fish iv. Pterophyllum scalare
Answer
D. a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
65
Pick the odd statement about the green water technique
Answer
A. Deteriorates the water quality
66
Salted surimi may contain upto
Answer
A. 2.5% Sodium Chloride
67
Masmin is prepared from
Answer
D. Tuna
68
Constant rate of drying of fish depends on
Answer
A. Relative Humidity
69
Fish soluble is also known as
Answer
C. Stick water
70
During filling the can, the optimum Head-space should be
Answer
B. 6 to 9 mm
71
Match each terminology and its definition related to the construction of a fish pond. 1. Embankment height a. A ratio of the horizontal distance to the vertical drop of the pond’s dike 2. Embankment width b. The total vertical distance from the pond bottom to the top of the embankment 3. Freeboard c. The flat horizontal distance at the top of the pond’s dike 4. Embankment slope d. The vertical distance between the maximum designated water level and the top crest of the pond’s dike
Answer
D. 1 Þ b; 2 Þ c; 3 Þ d; 4 Þ a
72
Which of the following statement are correct with reference to Root Blowers used for aeration in shrimp larval rearing tanks ? i. It provides large volume of low pressure air. ii. It provides small volume of high pressure air. iii. It does not produce oil slicks on the surface of the water. iv. It requires air filters at the inlet and outlet pipes.
Answer
B. i and iii
73
Assertion (A) : A sluice in the trench is a better inlet to let water into a fish pond than a simple inlet pipe of 10 cm in diameter. Reason (R) : A slice built in the trench to keep out wild fish from entering into the fish pond.
Answer
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
74
Calculate the total refrigeration capacity (Qₜₒₜₐₗ_ₗₒₐd) of the Mini Walk-in-Cooler used to store fish with the given different heat loads and by adding a safety margin of 1.2? Transmission load (Qₜᵣ) = 450 W; Product cooling load (Qₚ) = 750 W; Infiltration load (Qᵢₙf) = 4500 W; Internal equipment load (Qₑq) = 1000 W.
Answer
A. 8040
75
A technology that powers a cooling or freezing system directly from solar panels without the need for batteries is termed as
Answer
D. Solar Direct Drive (SDD) system
76
NFDP is a transformative initiative undertaken by Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Fisheries, Government of India for fisheries data collection and analysis to facilitate informed decision making, policy formulation and collaborations. Which among the given below is the correct expansion of NFDP ?
Answer
C. National Fisheries Digital Platform
77
Under the beneficiary-oriented components implemented through state channels under PMMSY, what is the maximum percentage of financial assistance (subsidy) provided for projects targeting SC, ST and Women beneficiaries ?
Answer
C. 60% of the unit cost
78
Catch Per Unit Effort (CPUE) is a fundamental statistical index in fisheries biology. What does a declining Catch Per Unit Effort (CPUE) over time typically indicate about a fish stock ?
Answer
D. The fish stock biomass is declining (over exploitation)
79
Which international body officially adopted the Code of Conduct for Responsible Fisheries (CCRF) and in which year ?
Answer
D. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) in 1995
80
In the standard fisheries length-weight relationship equation, W = aLᵇ, what does it mean if the statistical analysis shows the exponent b is significantly greater than 3.0?
Answer
C. The fish exhibits positive allometric growth
81
The Fish Farmers Development Agency (FFDA) was introduced as a pioneering institutional mechanism in India. What has been its primary, core mandate at the grassroots level ?
Answer
B. Providing technical, financial and extension support to popularize inland freshwater aquaculture
82
While sustainable fisheries management indirectly supports multiple global goals, which specific UN Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) is explicitly dedicated to the conservation and sustainable use of oceans, seas and marine resources ?
Answer
C. SDG 14
83
Which biological hotspot features India’s largest Marine National Park and Sanctuary network in terms of continuous coral reef protection ?
Answer
A. Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park (Tamil Nadu)
84
How do healthy, strictly enforced Marine Protected Areas actively contribute to climate change mitigation and ocean resilience ?
Answer
C. They protect “Blue Carbon” sinks (like seagrasses and mangroves) and maintain genetic diversity to help species adapt to warming waters
85
Which premier Indian research organization provides technical expertise, site selection assistance and post-deployment impact assessments for artificial reef projects in India ?
Answer
A. ICAR-Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI)
86
Agreement under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea on the Conservation and Sustainable use of Marine Biological Diversity of areas beyond National jurisdiction is
Answer
A. BBNJ Agreement
87
The Schaefer surplus production model assumes that the highest growth rate of a fish population occurs at what level of the virgin biomass (K) ?
Answer
C. 0.5 K
88
To scientifically manage Marine resources, the Ministry of Fisheries (Government of India) enforces uniform ban periods across maritime states. What are the standard uniform ban periods traditionally applied to the East Coast and West Coast of India respectively ?
Answer
C. East Coast: April 15 – June 14 (61 days); West Coast: June 1 – July 31 (61 days)
89
Which statistical test is commonly used to compare the means of two independent fish populations ?
Answer
B. t-test
90
The Kerala Marine Fishing Regulation Act, 1980 (KMFRA) empowers the State Government to regulate, restrict or prohibit fishing activities by fishing vessels within its territorial waters primarily to achieve which of the following objective pairs ?
Answer
B. Conserve marine resources, maintain law and order among fishers
91
Select the correct answer from the statements given below :
Answer
D. Statements A) and B) are wrong
92
Kerala Marine Fisheries Regulation Act has jurisdiction up to
Answer
C. 12 nautical miles
93
ICAR-CMFRI has played a significant role in
Answer
B. The development of Minimum Legal Size
94
According to the KMFR Act, if the owner of a fishing vessel proposes to use their vessel for fishing in the territorial waters of Kerala, they must apply for a license. If an owner is aggrieved by an order refusing to grant, cancel, or suspend a license, to whom must they appeal ?
Answer
C. The Appellate Authority designated by the Government
95
A vital socio-ecological component of the KMFR Act and similar Marine Fishing Regulation Act is the demarcation of fishing zones. Which of the following best describes the legal framework regarding fishing zones in Kerala ?
Answer
B. The maritime rules strongly encourage reserving zones exclusively for traditional fishers to protect their livelihoods
96
“Matsyafed”operates as a two-tier co-operative federation to support the socio- economic development of traditional fishers in Kerala. Which of the following statements accurately describes its core organizational and financial structure ?
Answer
B. Primary Fishermen Development Welfare Co-operative Societies (FDWCS) are organized at the village level and affiliated with Matsyafed as the apex body
97
The ICAR-Central Institute of Fisheries Education (CIFE) plays a pivotal role in advanced fisheries research, technology generation and human resource development. Which of the following statements correctly identifies a distinct historical, institutional, or operational milestone of ICAR-CIFE ?
Answer
C. CIFE was elevated to the status of a Deemed University in 1989 under the UGC Act, making it the first university-level institution within the ICAR system.
98
The National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB), established in 2006 and headquartered in Hyderabad, is an autonomous apex body crucial to India’s Blue Economy. Which of the following statements accurately outlines its administrative architecture and specific institutional operations ?
Answer
C. The NFDB is structurally overseen by a Governing Body chaired by the Union Minister in charge of Fisheries, while the Executive Committee is chaired by the Secretary of the Department of Fisheries.
99
Which of the following statement is true ?
Answer
B. MPEDA was established in 1972
100
The HQ of The Kerala State Co-operative Federation for Fisheries Development Ltd. Is located at
Answer
D. Thiruvananthapuram
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