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Kerala PSC Prosthetic and Orthotic Engineer – Medical Education Service Previous Question Paper – 012/2020/OL

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Post NameProsthetic and Orthotic Engineer - Medical Education Service
Question Paper Code012/2020/OL
Category Code214/2018
Date of Test11 September 2020
Medium of QuestionENGLISH
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
What determines prehensile force of the voluntary opening terminal device?
Answer
C. Number and type of rubber bands, springs
2
Hindfoot control orthosis is recommended for _________
Answer
A. Subtalar instability
3
___________ is used for TB cervical spine?
Answer
D. Halo vest
4
How many harness will a clavicular orthosis have?
Answer
C. 4
5
_________ is an indication for ASH brace?
Answer
C. Adolescent kyphosis
6
'Three claw chunk' is which type of prehension?
Answer
B. Palmar prehension
7
___________ is a device which is applied to lower limb to give support or control a joint while walking.
Answer
B. Caliper
8
Boston brace for scoliosis is preferred for an age group of _____________
Answer
A. 3 to 10 years
9
Which is preferred for knee flexion deformity more than 35 degrees?
Answer
C. Knee cage splint
10
Which of these is an articulated ankle foot assembly?
Answer
D. Single axis
11
Used for self-suspending transradial sockets such as the muenster socket
Answer
D. Figure 9 harness
12
_________ splint is used for Brachial plexus injury
Answer
D. Aeroplane
13
The flex-foot cheetah is made up of
Answer
C. Carbon fibre reinforced polymer
14
________ is a type of transradial harness suspension system.
Answer
D. All of the above
15
What kind of prosthetic foot is used for K2 users
Answer
A. Multi-axis foot
16
Which dynamic response prosthetic foot consists of 1 pylon and foot
Answer
D. Flex foot
17
What does TES stand for?
Answer
B. Total Elastic Suspension
18
Which of the following is not the type of suction liner?
Answer
B. ACE wrap
19
What is the preferred length of the residual limb for trans-tibial prosthetics?
Answer
C. 6-7 inches
20
Excessive knee friction and inadequate suspension may lead to which type of gait deviation?
Answer
C. Vaulting
21
Among these what is not source of the following gait deviation: Cicumduction
Answer
B. Weak hip abductors
22
___________ lines the socket interface of knee prosthesis
Answer
D. Gel liners
23
Which one of the following angle is true about the angle between the neck and shaft of the femur in adult?
Answer
C. 120-130 degree
24
What is symes amputation
Answer
C. Amputation of ankle joint
25
Which of these is not related to the abducted gait deviation
Answer
B. Short stump length
26
What kind of prosthesis does a patient with a small toe amputation need?
Answer
D. No prosthesis required
27
Which knee unit is the most stable?
Answer
A. Manual locking knee
28
What K ambulator is manual locking knee used in?
Answer
A. K1
29
As the length of the residual limb increases, __________ improves
Answer
C. Both function and Prosthetic control
30
To ensure a sufficient lever arm for effective prosthetic control, at least how many inches of the tibia are required?
Answer
D. 5-6
31
Which of these exercises should be done 1 week after a transtibial amputation?
Answer
A. Quad sets
32
How many years should a definitive prosthesis last?
Answer
C. 3-5 years
33
On observation, ______________ is indicated by the areas on the residual limb that are blanched and quickly turn deep red.
Answer
B. Excessive pressure
34
Bony growth out from the main surface of the bone is called ___________
Answer
B. Exostosis
35
______________ is most recommended for transtibial amputee gait training?
Answer
C. Lofstrand crutches
36
When the ischium does its weight bearing in standing gait, the anterior socket wall produces a _____________ force which keeps the ischium on the ischial seat.
Answer
B. Posterior
37
The length of a hip prosthesis should be __________
Answer
B. Shorter than the sound limb
38
What does SACH stand for?
Answer
A. Solid ankle Cushion Heel
39
_____________ is applicable for a patient with compensated rearfoot varus.
Answer
D. Rigid, medial post
40
ASH brace is a spinal orthosis that prevent
Answer
A. Flexion of the spine
41
______________ plastic is commonly used in prefabricated Ankle Foot Orthosis
Answer
A. Polypropylene
42
For a candidate who needs both motion control and shock absorption __________ orthosis would be suggested
Answer
B. Semi-Rigid
43
Which of these is a true statement
Answer
D. The steeper the stress/strain curve, the more ductile the material
44
Which of these is an option to reduce pronation during gait
Answer
B. Bevel the lateral heel
45
_________________ is not a clinical applications of creep
Answer
D. Hypotonia
46
Which of Newton's laws do we use most when manufacturing orthotic devices?
Answer
D. III
47
When weight is a major concern, in designing Prosthetics and Orthotics ____________ is used.
Answer
B. aluminium
48
When residual forearm is so short, which of these is used to augment function?
Answer
C. Both (1) and (2)
49
Which of these are used on uneven terrain?
Answer
A. Constant friction knee
50
For fixed deformities, ___________ foot orthoses are used to improve foot function.
Answer
B. Soft
51
Which of these is not applicable for AFO?
Answer
D. Providing mediolateral stability
52
Which of these is not applicable for orthosis?
Answer
C. Corrects a fixed joint contracture
53
The mandibulor-occipital assembly is a part of ____________ orthosis
Answer
B. Spinal
54
Central amputation involves _____________
Answer
B. Digits III and IV
55
_____________ provides stable support of prosthesis
Answer
C. Harness
56
Endoskeletal systems are made of ________
Answer
D. All the above
57
What does the abbreviation HKAFO stand for in orthotics?
Answer
C. hip-knee-ankle-foot orthoses
58
Which of thses are not an example of orthosis
Answer
B. hio-knee-ankle-foot orthoses
59
Which of these is not a property of immediate post-op prosthesis?
Answer
C. Permanent
60
Hemipelvectomy refers to _____________
Answer
C. Removal of part of pelvis
61
Mr. X has medio-lateral instability at the ankle joint.Which type of orthotic ankle joint can be prescribed?
Answer
B. Dorsiflexion assist
62
_____________ indicates that the patient has ability/potential for ambulation with ability to traverse curbs, stairs, uneven surfaces
Answer
C. K2
63
Posterior lead spring is applicable for
Answer
D. Dorsiflexion assistance
64
Functional outcome at the transtibial level can be ___________ if there is good soft-tissue coverage of the residual limb and good fitting of the socket
Answer
B. Very high
65
The socket design for knee disarticulation does not include _________
Answer
D. Ischial bearing
66
_____________ is used to provide adjustable swing control with variable cadence and are generally used for level 2 or level 3 ambulators
Answer
C. Pneumatic knees
67
________ incorporate pneumatic or hydraulic control mechanism for stance stability and variable cadence, again for longer residual limbs
Answer
C. Hybrid polycentric knees
68
The functional outcome at transfemoral amputation generally depends on _________
Answer
D. all the above
69
_________ Patellar Tendon-Bearing Orthosis can be used for dysvascular patients with chronic ulcerations on the feet
Answer
B. Calf corset design
70
_____________ has an incremental locking mechanisms every 7-10º to gradually stretch the knee following contracture or spasticity
Answer
C. Ratchet lock
71
__________ allows up to 25º of flexion, even in its locked position, to mimic normal gait patterns.
Answer
B. Trick knee lock
72
Handi-Hook device is the prosthetic option for
Answer
B. Partial hand amputation
73
While using an elbow Disarticulation Amputation, Once the elbow is properly positioned, the elbow must be locked a __________ maneuver of the shoulder
Answer
A. Down, back and out
74
Long transhumeral amputation preserves _________ of humeral length in Transhumeral Amputation
Answer
C. 50-90%
75
Which specialty Terminal Device can be designed for golf and skiing for an amputee?
Answer
C. Activity - specific terminal devices
76
No prosthetic device may be necessary for most of the functional tasks if there is at least ________
Answer
C. The thumb and one finger remaining
77
Which of the following is an indication of Supra Malleolar Orthosis (SMO)?
Answer
A. Moderate to severe subtalar instability
78
KAFO designs can be used for _______
Answer
D. All the above
79
Which of these does not pertain to general features of AFO?
Answer
C. Ratchet lock
80
When is the fitting of permanent prosthesis is scheduled?
Answer
C. Months 3-6
81
What is Li-Fi?
Answer
A. Light Fidelity
82
Spoofing is
Answer
A. an attack in which a program masquerades as another by falsifying data
83
LTE stands for
Answer
D. All the above
84
RAM is an acronym for
Answer
B. Random Access Memory
85
___________ is known as the brain of a computer
Answer
C. Central Processing unit
86
IP stands for
Answer
D. Internet Protocol
87
Which of the following is not a browser?
Answer
C. Yahoo
88
DVD stands for
Answer
C. Digital versatile disk
89
A byte contains _________ bits
Answer
B. 8
90
Which of the following is a pointing device?
Answer
D. All the above
91
At what approximate time between 4 a.m and 5a.m. will the hands of a clock be at right angle
Answer
B. 4:38 a.m
92
What is the average of first 20 multiples of 8
Answer
A. 84
93
3 x3 x2 x2 = ...... .
Answer
D. 108
94
A person moves North, then he turns to his right and then again right and finally go to left. In which direction is he moving now?
Answer
B. East
95
Write the 25th term of the G.P. 1, -1, 1, -1,......
Answer
B. 1
96
Today is Monday, after 61 days the day will be
Answer
C. Saturday
97
If 6 girls can embroider a dress in 9 days, then the number of days taken by 2 girls is ____________
Answer
A. 27 days
98
�1 − 1 ��1 − 1 ��1 − 1 �... . �1 − 1 � = 𝑥 2 3 4 60 60 find the value of x
Answer
D. 1
99
A class has 20 boys and 30 girls. The average age of boys is 11 years and girls is 12 years. What is the average age of whole class
Answer
B. 11.6
100
(√5 - 2)² = ? - √80. Find ?
Answer
A. 9

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