| Post Name | Radiographer Grade II |
|---|---|
| Department | Medical Education Category No : 347/2021 |
| Question Paper Code | 082/2022/OL |
| Category Code | 347/2021 |
| Date of Test | 1 October 2022 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Number of electrons ļ¬owing per second from ļ¬lament to target in an x-ray tube refers to
Answer
B. Tube current
2
Melting point of tungsten is
Answer
A. 3370 degrees C
3
Range of anode angle in x-ray tubes
Answer
C. 6 to 20 degree
4
Bucky factor indicates the absorption of
Answer
D. both primary and secondary radiation
5
Noise which arises which from the statistical ļ¬uctuations in the number of x-ray photons absorbed by the intensifying screen to form an image in a ļ¬lm is also called
Answer
C. Quantum Mottle
6
Q-factor of a transducer refers to
Answer
D. purity and length of time of sound wave
7
SI unit for absorbed dose
Answer
A. gray
8
The time interval between 2 90 degree pulses in MR image acquisition is
Answer
C. TR
9
In a CT image, each square in the image matrix is called
Answer
D. pixel
10
'Characteristics curve' depicts relationship between
Answer
D. exposure and density
11
The structure known as the 'pacemaker of the heart' is
Answer
D. SA node
12
Diabetes incipidus is a medical condition due to deļ¬ciency of
Answer
C. ADH
13
Elevation of medially-rotated eye, abduction and lateral rotation is the action of which extra-ocular muscle
Answer
B. inferior oblique
14
Mental foramen is located in which bone ?
Answer
C. mandible
15
A hollow cavity inside a bone is called
Answer
B. sinus
16
Breast is a _______ gland.
Answer
B. sweat
17
Innermost layer of the meninges - the membranous covering surrounding the brain is
Answer
B. pia mater
18
Forceps major is an anatomical structure in
Answer
B. brain
19
The terminal branches of external carotid artery are
Answer
C. superļ¬cial temporal A and maxillary A
20
Nerve within the carpal tunnel is
Answer
C. median nerve
21
In a conventional photographic ļ¬lm, gelatin and silver halide are components of
Answer
D. emulsion
22
In ļ¬lm processing, the chemical process that ampliļ¬es the latent image - by a factor of millions - to form a visible silver pattern is called
Answer
B. development
23
Measurement of ļ¬lm blackness is called
Answer
B. photographic density
24
Film contrast depends on all the following except
Answer
D. diļ¬erential attenuation
25
Maximum slope of a characteristic curve is
Answer
A. ļ¬lm gamma
26
Development of unexposed silver halide grains that do not contain the latent image is called
Answer
C. fog
27
Fixation removes unexposed
Answer
B. silver halide
28
Increasing the time or temperature of ļ¬lm development will cause
Answer
C. increased fog
29
Range of log-relative exposure, that will produce a density within the accepted range for diagnostic radiology, is called
Answer
B. latitude
30
________ reaction occurs when the photon energy and the electron binding energy are nearly the same.
Answer
C. Photo-electric reaction
31
Nuclides with the same number of protons but diļ¬erent neutrons are
Answer
C. isotope
32
Technetium-99 has a half life of
Answer
Question Cancelled
33
Types of biological eļ¬ects of radiation are
Answer
C. stochastic and deterministic
34
In PC-PNDT Act, 1994, which is the form for informed consent for invasive procedures
Answer
D. Form G
35
The MR equivalent of 'power absorbed per unit mass', just like we measure Gy in ionizing radiation, is
Answer
C. Speciļ¬c Absorption Rate (SAR)
36
In MRI, the abbreviation TE in a pulse-echo sequence, stands for
Answer
D. time to echo
37
The ___________ is the thickness of a speciļ¬c substance that, when introduced in the path of a beam of radiation, reduces exposure rate by half.
Answer
C. Half-Value Layer (HVL)
38
To diļ¬erentiate between calciļ¬cation and haemorrhage, the sequence used in MRI is
Answer
C. Susceptibility-weighted imaging
39
Active CSF leak is conļ¬rmed with _________ investigation.
Answer
C. CT cisternogram
40
Transducer crystals in the USG probe are made up of
Answer
A. Piezoelectric crystals
41
MRI sequence for detecting microscopic fat content in the tissue is
Answer
C. in-phase and out-of-phase sequence
42
The appropriate attitude towards a patient seeking assistance in a hospital setting would be
Answer
B. empathy
43
In female patients presenting for ionizing radiation-based investigations, the most important clinical history to be elicited is
Answer
C. menstrual history
44
All these are ionizing radiation except
Answer
D. ultra-violet radiation
45
The 3 basic principles of radiation protection
Answer
C. justiļ¬cation, optimization, dose-limitation
46
What is the relationship between the radiation dose and distance ? Doubling distance will decrease dose by
Answer
C. one-fourth
47
AERB stands for
Answer
D. Atomic Energy Regulatory Board
48
The absolute density in CT is measured in __________ units.
Answer
C. hounsļ¬eld
49
Radiation -induced cancer and genetic eļ¬ects are considered ______ biological eļ¬ects of radiation.
Answer
B. stochastic
50
In ante-natal pregnancy scanning, a dedicated fetal anomaly scan is done at ______ gestational age.
Answer
B. 18-20 weeks
51
Half-life (Tā/ā) of a radioactive substance is related to the average life (Tā) by which equation?
Answer
C. Tā/ā = Tā/1.44
52
X-ray quantity is the
Answer
B. Number of X-ray photons in the X-ray beam
53
Which of the following is not a gas ļ¬lled detector ?
Answer
A. Scintillation detector
54
Track of ionization produced by secondary electrons are known as
Answer
B. Delta rays
55
Tissue Air Ratio (TAR) is independent of
Answer
D. SSD
56
Fluoroscopy images can be recorded by means of
Answer
D. All of the above
57
The line passing through points of equal dose is known as
Answer
C. Isodose curve
58
The measure of total energy absorbed in treated volume is
Answer
C. Integral dose
59
The unit of absorbed dose is
Answer
B. rad
60
In the Build Up region, KERMA is _________ absorbed dose.
Answer
A. Greater than
61
The half-life of Gold 198 (Au-198) is
Answer
D. 2.7 days
62
The total activity of all radioisotopes discharged into the sewage in one year by any institution shall not exceed
Answer
A. 1 Ci
63
Tc-99 m emits gamma energy of
Answer
D. 140 keV
64
Which of the following is the AERB safety directive describes the dose limits for exposures from ionizing radiations for workers and the members of the public
Answer
A. AERB Directive No. 01/2011
65
What is the minimum primary wall thickness of a typical Telecobalt bunker ?
Answer
C. 130 cm
66
1 TVT = __________ HVT.
Answer
D. 3.3
67
Lateral wall of Nasopharynx contain all except
Answer
C. Basilar portion of sphenoid
68
Bimodal age distribution is found in which Carcinoma of head and neck ?
Answer
B. Cancer nasopharynx
69
Acinic cell carcinoma salivary gland arises from
Answer
D. Terminal ducts & Intercalated ducts
70
In AJCC staging of head and neck tumors, which carcinoma staging takes into consideration the human papilloma virus status
Answer
A. Cancer oropharynx
71
In cervical carcinoma, presence of hydronephrosis is staged as
Answer
D. Stage III B
72
First site of distant metastasis in cervical cancer is
Answer
A. Lung
73
Breast anatomically extends cranio-caudally from
Answer
C. Second rib to sixth rib anteriorly
74
Well established risk factors in development of cancer breast includes all except
Answer
D. Early menopause
75
R-S cells are signature neoplastic cells of
Answer
B. Classic Hodgkin's lymphoma
76
Rectum is approximately ___________ in length.
Answer
C. 12 to 15 cm
77
Cancer registry in India under ICMR include
Answer
B. Population based and hospital based registry
78
Common ethical issues directly aļ¬ecting Oncology patients are all except
Answer
D. Plagiarism and fabrication
79
Patient counseling before radiation planning and start of treatment should include all except
Answer
D. None of the above
80
Radiation induced salivary dysfunction can be prevented by
Answer
B. Amifostine therapy
81
Intensity modulated radiotherapy includes _________ before plan acceptance.
Answer
D. Both 1 and 3
82
Which volume takes into consideration the organ motion and setup variations in IMRT planning ?
Answer
C. Planning target volume
83
The rationale for _________ fractionation is that reduction of overall treatment time decreases the opportunity for tumor cell regeneration.
Answer
A. Accelerated fractionation radiotherapy
84
Biological eļ¬ect of concurrent chemo radiation include all except
Answer
D. Favorer DNA repair
85
Spinal cord tolerance in radiotherapy
Answer
B. 45 Gy
86
SBRT is
Answer
C. Stereotactic Body Radiotherapy
87
All can be used in cancer treatment except
Answer
D. Nitrogen ions
88
HDR (High Dose Rate) brachytherapy is
Answer
A. >12 Gy/hour
89
Brachytherapy technique is commonly used in all except
Answer
D. Cancer Brain
90
ICRU (International Commission on Radiation Units and Measurements) 38 deļ¬nes
Answer
C. Brachytherapy
91
Radiopharmaceuticals include all except
Answer
D. Radium-203
92
In nasopharyngeal carcinoma, gross disease is given a total dose of
Answer
B. 70 Gy
93
Left parotid gland radiation treatment is conventionally planned in which treatment position ?
Answer
D. Supine with head turned to right
94
Level IV neck node include
Answer
B. Lower deep cervical lymph nodes
95
Palliative radiotherapy common schedules to spine metastasis include
Answer
C. 30 Gy/10 fractions/2 weeks
96
In breast planning, brachial plexus dose volume constraints is kept at
Answer
A. maximum 54 Gy
97
Neo adjuvant radiotherapy is used for down staging and functional preservation in treatment of
Answer
C. cancer rectum
98
Which chemotherapy drug is not used in concurrent chemo radiotherapy for anal cancer ?
Answer
A. Adriamycin
99
Early vocal cord cancers can be treated by all except
Answer
D. Total laryngectomy
100
Superior border in cancer cervix, external beam radiotherapy planning is taken as
Answer
B. L3-L4 vertebral inter space
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet ā start the discussion.