| Post Name | Regional Officer, Kerala State Co Operative Coir Marketing Federation Limited |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 024/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 283/2024 |
| Date of Test | 11 February 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following best distinguishes strategic plans from operational plans ? A. Strategic plans are long-term, while operational plans are short term. B. Strategic plans are formulated by top management, while operational plans focus on day-to-day activities. C. Strategic plans deal only with proļ¬ts, while operational plans deal with costs. D. Strategic plans are rigid, while operational plans are ļ¬exible.
Answer
B. Both statements A and B are correct
2
In an organisation following strict scalar chain and unity of command, a supervisor delegates a task but retains ļ¬nal responsibility for its outcome. This situation most directly reļ¬ects the principle of :
Answer
D. Absolute responsibility
3
A ļ¬rm operating in a highly dynamic and uncertain environment is most likely to beneļ¬t from which organisational structure ?
Answer
C. Organic structure with decentralised decision-making
4
In an organisation adopting a process-oriented structure, which of the following outcomes is most likely ?
Answer
B. Greater customer focus and reduced inter-departmental conļ¬ict
5
Which of the following conditions would most strongly justify a high degree of decentralisation in an organisation ?
Answer
C. Large organisational size with diverse markets and products
6
In a line organisation, authority :
Answer
C. Flows vertically from top to bottom
7
Which of the following is not an element of directing ?
Answer
D. Budgeting
8
A production manager closely monitors only those activities where actual performance deviates signiļ¬cantly from the set standards, while routine activities meeting standards are left unattended. This approach best reļ¬ects the principle of :
Answer
B. Management by exception
9
Which of the following situations is an example of feedforward control ?
Answer
C. Screening raw materials before they enter the production process
10
A department consistently stays within its expenditure limits but fails to achieve output targets. Which limitation of budgetary control does this situation highlight ?
Answer
B. Budgets focus on ļ¬nancial inputs rather than performance outcomes
11
A CEO issues a strategic memo that is factually accurate, logically structured and linguistically precise. However, middle-level managers misinterpret the urgency and delay execution because the message does not explicitly assign responsibility or deadlines. Which two C's are primarily violated ?
Answer
C. Completeness and concreteness
12
Which of the following is not an example of a physical communication barrier ?
Answer
D. Language
13
Which of the following is identiļ¬ed as a cause of physical communication barriers ?
Answer
C. Geographical distance
14
___________ is a language that is unique to a particular ļ¬eld of knowledge, e.g., science, technology, art, trade or a profession.
Answer
A. Jargon
15
Who deļ¬ned communication as "Communication in its simplest form of conveying of information from one person to another" ?
Answer
A. Hudson
16
According to G. W. Porter, which of the following best diļ¬erentiates "Signs" from "Symbolic" non-verbal communication ?
Answer
C. Signs convey meaning through standardized mechanical signals, whereas symbolic communication conveys meaning through socially constructed values
17
Which of the following statement is/are correct ? I. Encoding is using a code to structure a message in an eļ¬ort to achieve our communicative objective. II. The medium is the physical system which carries the message from sender to receiver. III. Noise is a random input which distorts a message or which interferes with its transmission or reception. IV. Encoding is using our knowledge of the code to work out the meaning of a message we have received.
Answer
C. I, II, III
18
Which of the following statement is/are correct ? I. Personal channels of communication are direct interpersonal (face-to-face) contact with target individuals or groups. II. Non-personal channels of communication are those that carry a message without interpersonal contact between sender and receiver. III. The channel is the method by which the communication travels from the source or sender to the receiver. IV. Non-personal channels are generally referred to as the mass media or mass communications,since the message is sent to many individuals at one time.
Answer
C. I, II, III and IV
19
A __________ is a language variety which is characteristic of a region or a socio-economic group.
Answer
A. Dialect
20
A technically sound message fails because the receiver interprets it based on past negative experiences with the sender rather than the message content. Which factor is most directly inļ¬uencing communication in this situation ?
Answer
C. Psychological perception and attitude
21
A lender wants to assess a ļ¬rm's ability to repay long-term borrowings using information available at the end of the ļ¬nancial year. Which statement would provide the most relevant information ?
Answer
C. Balance Sheet
22
A ļ¬rm reports a net proļ¬t for the year. Where will this amount be reļ¬ected in the ļ¬nal accounts ?
Answer
A. Added to capital in the Balance Sheet
23
A ļ¬rm reports high proļ¬ts but struggles to pay short-term dues. This indicates weakness in :
Answer
B. Liquidity
24
Which of the following is a current asset ?
Answer
C. Debtors
25
If depreciation is not charged, which outcome is most likely ?
Answer
B. Assets and proļ¬ts overstated
26
Outstanding expenses are shown in the Balance Sheet as :
Answer
C. Liabilities
27
Which adjustment aļ¬ects both the Proļ¬t and Loss Account and the Balance Sheet ?
Answer
B. Outstanding salary
28
Consistent accounting policies mainly help in :
Answer
C. Comparing performance across years
29
A ļ¬rm's assets and liabilities rise sharply, but proļ¬ts remain stagnant. This most likely indicates :
Answer
B. Higher leverage without returns
30
The inter-relationship between Proļ¬t and Loss Account and Balance Sheet is best shown when :
Answer
B. Net proļ¬t is added to capital
31
Operating proļ¬t means
Answer
D. Net proļ¬t before interest and tax
32
If CGS = Rs. 1,80,000, other operating expenses = Rs. 30,000 and net sales = Rs. 3,00,000, operating ratio is
Answer
B. 70%
33
Identify false statement/ statements i) Debt-equity ratio, also known as the external-internal ratio. ii) Net proļ¬t is the same as operating proļ¬t. iii) Acid-test denotes liquidity. iv) Current ratio is also known as the liquid ratio.
Answer
A. ii only
34
Debtor's turnover ratio is usually expressed as
Answer
A. Times
35
Liquid assets mean
Answer
D. Current assets, excluding stock and prepaid expenses
36
Which ratio tells the extent of the change in Earnings Before Tax (EBT) due to a change in operating income (EBIT) ?
Answer
B. Financial leverage
37
If the current ratio is 2.5 and the working capital is Rs. 90,000, how much is current liabilities ?
Answer
A. 60,000
38
The standard quick ratio is
Answer
B. 1:1
39
How much is sales if the current ratio is 1.5, acid test ratio is 1.2, current liabilities are Rs. 4,00,000 and the inventory turnover ratio is 5 times ?
Answer
A. 6,00,000
40
Capital employed is taken as i) Gross capital employed. ii) Net capital employed. iii) Proprietor's net capital employed. iv) Average capital employed.
Answer
A. All are correct
41
The Japanese philosophy that emphasizes small, continuous improvements is termed as
Answer
C. Kaizen
42
PDCA in TQM stands for :
Answer
B. Plan - Do - Check - Act
43
Which of the following best deļ¬nes benchmarking ?
Answer
A. A continuous learning process
44
Which of the following indicates eļ¬ective employee empowerment ?
Answer
C. Employees identify root causes and suggest improvements
45
ISO 9000 certiļ¬cation is
Answer
B. Voluntary
46
The main aim of ISO 14000 is to
Answer
D. Prevent pollution and protect the environment
47
Quality in TQM can be expressed as
Answer
C. Q = Performance / Expectations
48
BIS was established under
Answer
D. BIS Act, 1986
49
In short-term scheduling, forward scheduling means :
Answer
A. Scheduling jobs as soon as the job requirements are known
50
In JIT, production is driven by
Answer
C. Customer demand
51
A manufacturing ļ¬rm experiences frequent delays despite adequate capacity because shop-ļ¬oor activities are not aligned with the master schedule. Which PPC function is most likely weak ?
Answer
D. Follow-up and expediting
52
A ļ¬rm integrates purchasing, stores, inventory control and materials handling under a single department to reduce total material cost. This approach best reļ¬ects
Answer
B. Integrated materials management
53
A ļ¬rm classiļ¬es a small number of high-value items for strict monitoring, while low-value items receive minimal control. This technique is based on
Answer
C. ABC classiļ¬cation
54
A buyer selects a supplier not solely on price but also on reliability, quality consistency and long-term partnership potential, This reļ¬ects
Answer
C. Strategic purchasing orientation
55
A ļ¬rm improves responsiveness by reducing lead time, increasing information visibility and improving coordination among partners, These actions directly aļ¬ect which supply chain drivers ?
Answer
B. Information and coordination
56
When capacity planning, shop-ļ¬oor control and ļ¬nancial planning are integrated with material planning, the system is classiļ¬ed as
Answer
C. MRP-II
57
A ļ¬rm implements a single integrated database connecting ļ¬nance, HR, production, procurement and sales. The primary beneļ¬t is
Answer
A. Enterprise-wide information integration
58
A ļ¬rm outsources a component when external suppliers can produce it at lower cost and higher quality, allowing the ļ¬rm to focus on core competencies, This decision is driven by
Answer
B. Core competence logic
59
A buyer evaluates suppliers using delivery reliability, defect rates, cost competitiveness and responsiveness. This approach represents
Answer
A. Multi-criteria supplier performance appraisal
60
A ļ¬rm uses a bill of materials, master production schedule and inventory records to determine material requirements. This system is best described as
Answer
B. MRP-I
61
Which of the following is a pull-based ļ¬ow control system ?
Answer
C. Kanban
62
Safety stock in material planning is mainly used to protect against :
Answer
C. Demand and lead-time uncertainty
63
Which assumption is fundamental to classical MRP systems ?
Answer
B. Deterministic demand
64
Which factor causes systematic bias in forecasting ?
Answer
B. Consistent under-or over-estimation
65
If the production budget increases but the material purchase budget decreases, the most likely reason is :
Answer
C. Higher closing stock of raw materials planned
66
While preparing a material budget, abnormal losses are :
Answer
D. Considered separately and not built into standards
67
Which purchasing method is most appropriate when requirements are repetitive, quantities are uncertain and prices are relatively stable ?
Answer
B. Blanket purchasing
68
The classical " ļ¬ve rights" of purchasing include all except :
Answer
D. Right promotion
69
Vendor rating systems are used mainly to :
Answer
C. Evaluate and compare supplier performance
70
Source development becomes essential when :
Answer
C. Suitable suppliers are scarce or technologically weak
71
Which factor gives legal validity to a purchase contract ?
Answer
B. Mutual agreement between buyer and seller
72
The primary purpose of a purchase requisition is to :
Answer
B. Authorize procurement internally
73
Quoted lead time = 6 weeks; actual varies 5-9 weeks. Best response ?
Answer
B. Increase safety stock
74
Which best reļ¬ects an implied condition in purchasing law ?
Answer
C. Fitness for purpose
75
Purchase order follow-up is primarily concerned with :
Answer
B. Monitoring delivery commitments
76
Strong expediting systems are most critical when :
Answer
C. Supply risk and lead time uncertainty high
77
A ļ¬rm prefers domestic suppliers for critical spares mainly to reduce :
Answer
B. Lead time uncertainity
78
Which system best integrates purchasing with quality assurance ?
Answer
B. Vendor rating
79
Statements on international purchasing : 1. Currency ļ¬uctuation aļ¬ects cost 2. Trade regulations must be complied with 3. Inspection becomes unnecessary Which is correct ?
Answer
B. 1 and 2 only
80
Receipt and inspection together help ensure :
Answer
C. Conformance to quantity and quality
81
Statement I : Bin cards show quantity only. Statement II : Stores ledger shows both quantity and value. Choose the correct answer :
Answer
A. Both statements are true
82
Statement I : Centralised stores reduce duplication of stock. Statement II : Decentralised stores ensure better departmental control. Choose the correct answer :
Answer
A. Both statements are true
83
Which layout ensures minimum material handling ?
Answer
C. Scientiļ¬c store layout
84
Statement I : Store design should allow easy supervision. Statement II : Store design ignores safety aspects. Choose the correct answer :
Answer
C. Statement I true, statement II false
85
Issue of materials from stores should be based on :
Answer
C. Material requisition note
86
Which of the following is a function of store keeper ?
Answer
B. Inspection of incoming materials
87
Which of the following is a factor inļ¬uencing store location ?
Answer
B. Distance from production department
88
Bin card shows :
Answer
B. Quantity of materials received, issued and balance
89
Store layout refers to :
Answer
B. Arrangement of storage space
90
The primary objective of store organization is to :
Answer
C. Ensure smooth ļ¬ow of materials
91
Which of the following statements is/are correct to stores location ? i) Location should be in a position which minimizes the transportation charges. ii) There should be an easy access to all other departments. iii) It should avoid delay in the movement of materials. iv) It should be convenient to store bulky and heavy materials.
Answer
A. All are correct
92
_________ is essential to avoid losses of material from misappropriation, damage, deterioration etc.
Answer
C. Stores control
93
Classiļ¬cation of stores as direct material, consumables, spare parts etc. is an example for classiļ¬cation based on __________
Answer
B. Nature of material
94
Which of the following statement is not correct to bin card ?
Answer
D. It shows the money value of each stores along with the receipts, issue and closing balance of each stores
95
Which of the following is/are the functions of a storekeeper ? i) Ensuring that every item of stores received is duly supported by necessary documents. ii) Checking the bin card balances with the physical quantities in the bins. iii) Requisitioning to replenish the stores is not the function of storekeeper. iv) Preventing authorised persons from entering into the stores.
Answer
C. Only (i and ii)
96
Which of the following situations is/are the reasons for disagreement of balances disclosed by bin card and stores ledger while reconciling these two records ? i) Posting in the wrong bin card or stores ledger account. ii) Posting a receipt of material in the issue column. iii) Due to arithmetical errors. iv) Ommission of a document relating to receipt or issue of material.
Answer
D. All are correct
97
__________ is an account for every item of stores in which receipts, issue and closing balance of each item in the stores are recorded both in quantity and its money value.
Answer
B. Stores ledger
98
Which of the following statements is / are features of centralised stores - a type of stores ? i) The materials are received by and issued from one store. ii) It reduces risk of loss of material due to ļ¬re. iii) Economy in clerical costs and stationery is possible. iv) The risk of obsolescence of stores can be minimised.
Answer
A. Only (i, iii and iv)
99
Which of the following statements is / are correct to codiļ¬cation of items in the stores ? i) Coding system increases the complexity of maintaining stores. ii) It helps in avoidance of duplication due to multiple names of items. iii) Only alphabets are used for codiļ¬cation. iv) Decimal system of numeric can be used for codiļ¬cation.
Answer
C. Only (ii and iv)
100
Which of the following statements is /are correct to standardisation and simpliļ¬cation - two methods of stores control ? i) Standardisation aims at reducing the number of items carried in the stores. ii) Simpliļ¬cation aims at clear speciļ¬cation regarding the quality of the items to be purchased to the stores. iii) Standardisation is setting-up of ļ¬xed sizes, type, quality, measures etc. of materials to be stored. iv) Simpliļ¬cation is the elimination of superļ¬uous varieties, sizes, dimensions etc. of materials in the stores.
Answer
B. Only (iii and iv)
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