| Post Name | Research Assistant (Chemistry) - Ayurveda Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Department | Ayurveda Medical Education |
| Question Paper Code | 098/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 570/2023 |
| Date of Test | 19 August 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following statements are true about plant secondary metabolites ? i. Secondary metabolites help in the formation of primary metabolite. ii. Secondary metabolites are essential for normal growth and development. iii. Secondary metabolites are involved in plant defense. iv. Speciļ¬c secondary metabolites are restricted to one plant species or related group of species.
Answer
C. iii and iv
2
The number of carbon atoms in monoterpenes, diterpenes, sesquiterpenes, triterpenes and hemiterpenes are
Answer
B. 10, 20, 15, 30 and 5 respectively
3
Phytohormone gibberellins belongs to
Answer
B. Terpenes
4
Which of the following plant secondary metabolites are formed from isoprene units ?
Answer
B. Terpenoids
5
Two most abundant organic substances on earth are
Answer
B. Cellulose and lignin
6
Extraction procedure suitable for thermolabile compounds in plants i. Soxhlet extraction. ii. Maceration. iii. Decoction. iv. Supercritical extraction.
Answer
B. ii and iv
7
Which of the following is a purine derivative ?
Answer
D. Caļ¬eine
8
Requirement of a good solvent for solvent extraction of plant secondary metabolites
Answer
C. Should have good solubility for the compound-to-be-extracted and less solubility for other impurities
9
Extraction of 20 g dried plant leaf powder using 250 ml ethyl acetate resulted in an extract, which on drying provided 50 mg solvent-free extract. The percentage yield of the extract would be
Answer
Question Cancelled
10
A researcher tested a plant extract for phytochemical screening and got green colour with Wagner's reagent and yellow coloured precipitate with lead acetate. What can you infer based on these results ?
Answer
B. Absence of alkaloids and presence of ļ¬avonoids
11
2-D electrophoresis is a combination of
Answer
B. Isoelectric focusing and SDS PAGE
12
Advantage of nested PCR
Answer
D. All of the above
13
Quartz cuvettes are preferred over glass cuvettes because
Answer
A. Quartz is more transparent
14
Principle of Atomic Absorption spectrometry is
Answer
B. Free atoms in a sample generated by an atomizer absorb radiation, which is measured
15
Gold coating is used in sample preparation for scanning electron microscopy for i. Protecting the sample from disintegration. ii. Preventing surface charging. iii. Storing for future use. iv. To promote the emission of secondary electrons.
Answer
D. ii and iv
16
In a sample, electron spin resonance spectroscopy can measure
Answer
C. Free radicals
17
Which of the following statement is true, when comparing GC-MS and LC-MS ?
Answer
D. None of the above
18
Among the diļ¬erent ļ¬xatives used, Osmium tetroxide is considered best. However, it is mostly limited by
Answer
A. Slow penetration rate because of its large size
19
Optimum length of a PCR primer is between 18-30 bps because
Answer
C. Longer primers are less eļ¬cient in binding to the template during annealing and shorter primers are less speciļ¬c
20
According to Beer-Lambert's law, when a beam of light passes through a solution, the absorbance of light is directly proportional to the
Answer
D. All of the above
21
The SI unit of enzyme catalytic activity is
Answer
B. Katal
22
Pyruvate carboxylase is an example for
Answer
C. Ligase
23
Allosteric activator of ATCase is
Answer
A. ATP
24
The inhibitor that binds to the enzyme-Substrate complex is
Answer
C. Uncompetitive inhibitor
25
Type of inhibition of malonate on succinate dehydrogenase is
Answer
A. Competitive
26
Mutarotation of glucose is an example of
Answer
A. Acid-base catalysis
27
The catalytic residues of lysozyme are
Answer
B. Glu 35 and Asp 52
28
A diagnostic test for the presence of the active site of serine protease is its reaction with
Answer
A. Di isopropyl phosphor ļ¬uoride (DIPF)
29
The enzyme used in the treatment of leukemia is
Answer
C. Asparaginase
30
Lactate dehydrogenase is used for the diagnosis of
Answer
D. All of these
31
Which carbohydrate at the end of the chain determines blood group A antigenicity ?
Answer
B. N-acetyl galactosamine
32
A GTP binding protein required for the release of a clathrin coated vesicle from the membrane is
Answer
B. Dynamin
33
Which gene is known as the guardian of genome ?
Answer
B. p53
34
The best studied oncogene whose product act as a transcription factor is
Answer
B. MYC
35
The absolute measures of dispersion include
Answer
C. Both (1) and (2)
36
Blast that compares a protein sequence with a protein database is
Answer
A. Blastp
37
Antibody is immobilized on a microtiter well and sample containing antigen is added in
Answer
B. Sandwitch ELISA
38
Direct agglutination reaction for detecting typhoid bacilli is
Answer
B. WIDAL test
39
Antibiotics are sterilized by
Answer
Question Cancelled
40
Glucose transporter is an example for
Answer
C. Facilitated diļ¬usion
41
The word transcriptome means what ?
Answer
A. Quantifying mRNA from various genes
42
Which of the following is not a non-covalent drug target binding ?
Answer
D. Hydrophilic eļ¬ect
43
An experimental approach to drug discovery is
Answer
A. High throughput screening
44
Drugs NOT exhibiting saturated metabolism at or near the commonly employed concentrations include
Answer
D. Gentamicin
45
Drug which is not targeting a membrane transporter is
Answer
A. Glipizide
46
Which of the following is not a ligand gated ion channel ?
Answer
D. Secretin
47
Which of the following is a genotoxic agent ?
Answer
D. Aļ¬atoxin B
48
Which of the following is NOT an orally available metal chelator ?
Answer
A. Dimercaprol
49
Which of the following transport system is an example for passive transport system ?
Answer
D. SLC transporter
50
In the metabolism of Phenytoin, the to CYP2C9 is increased by
Answer
D. Enzyme induction
51
Energy of a radiation of wavelength 300 nm is
Answer
D. Both 1 and 2
52
Microwave spectrum can be expected for
Answer
A. CO
53
Number of fundamental vibrational frequencies expected for a non- linear molecule having 4 atoms
Answer
C. 6
54
Which of the following statements is/are correct ? i. Pure rotational spectrum of a diatomic molecule will consists of a number of equally spaced lines with separation of 2B. ii. Q branch is absent in vibrational-rotational spectra. iii. Energy of the lowest vibrational level is zero.
Answer
A. Both (i) and (ii)
55
Shift of absorption band to the shorter wavelength is called
Answer
B. Blue shift
56
The separation between ļ¬rst lines of Stokes and Anti-Stokes line in the rotational Raman spectrum is
Answer
D. 12B
57
Mutual exclusion principle is not applicable to
Answer
D. CO
58
A compound shows a proton-NMR peaks at 120 Hz downļ¬eld from the TMS peak in a spectrometer operating at 60 MHz. Chemical shift (Ī“) in ppm is
Answer
B. 2
59
The ESR spectrum of triphenylmethyl radical consists of
Answer
C. 196 lines
60
The spectroscopic technique used to establish the presence of intermolecular hydrogen bonding is
Answer
B. IR
61
In which of the following electrodes, potential value depends on pH of the solution ?
Answer
D. Both 1 and 2
62
Which of the following statements is/are correct ? i. In emulsion, both dispersion medium and dispersed phase are liquids. ii. Gel consists of solid dispersion medium and liquid dispersed phase. iii. In sol, the dispersion medium is liquid and dispersed phase is solid. iv. In foam, the dispersion medium and dispersed phase are gas and liquid respectively.
Answer
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
63
Principle of ultramicroscope depends on
Answer
A. Tyndalll eļ¬ect
64
Which of the following ions has highest coagulation power towards AsāSā sol.?
Answer
D. AlĀ³āŗ
65
Certain gels liquefy on shaking to form the corresponding solution and reset to the gel. This phenomenon is called
Answer
C. Thixotropy
66
Which of the following statements regarding the absolute conļ¬guration is/are correct ? i. D-glyceraldehyde has S conļ¬guration. ii. D-lactic acid has S conļ¬guration. iii. Absolute conļ¬guration of meso tartaric acid is 2R, 3R.
Answer
B. Only (ii)
67
The least stable conformer of cyclohexane is
Answer
C. Half chair form
68
Claisen rearrangement involves
Answer
B. 3, 3-sigmatropic rearrangement
69
Which of the following is anti aromatic ?
Answer
C. Pentalene
70
Decreasing order of acid strength of the following organic acids is i. Propanoic acid. ii. 2-chloropropanoic acid. iii. 3-chloropropanoic acid. iv. 2, 2-dichloropropanoic acid.
Answer
C. iv > ii > iii > i
71
Which of the following is/are correct about Flame Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy ? i. The most useful radiation source is the hollow-cathode lamp. ii. Electrodeless-discharge lamps are useful sources of atomic line spectra. iii. The atoms producing emission lines in the hollow-cathode lamp are at a signiļ¬cantly lower temperature than the analyte atoms in the ļ¬ame. iv. A rotating circular chopper may be placed between the ļ¬ame and detector for modulating the radiation to eliminate interferences.
Answer
B. All except (iv) are correct
72
If a solution has a transmittance of 20%, what is its absorbance ?
Answer
C. 0.699
73
Which of the following pair represent the two main types of electron sources used in Transmission Electron Microscopy (TEM) ?
Answer
A. Thermionic emitters and ļ¬eld emission guns
74
Why is the objective lens considered the most important lens in a TEM ?
Answer
C. It forms the ļ¬rst real and magniļ¬ed image of the specimen, which is then further magniļ¬ed by subsequent lenses
75
In Atomic Force Microscopy (AFM), which of the following statements best describes the impact of the "spring constant" of the AFM cantilever on the imaging process and force measurements ?
Answer
B. A lower spring constant increases the cantilever's sensitivity to surface forces, allowing for more accurate force measurements and reducing the risk of sample damage, but may lead to lower-resolution imaging
76
In Diļ¬erential Thermal Analysis (DTA), how is an exothermic reaction depicted on a thermogram compared to an endothermic reaction ?
Answer
A. An exothermic reaction shows a peak above the baseline, indicating heat release, while an endothermic reaction shows a peak below the baseline, indicating heat absorption
77
The use of supercritical carbon dioxide in green chemistry primarily follows which principle ?
Answer
D. Safer Solvents and Auxiliaries
78
In the host-guest complex formed between cyclodextrin and benzene, which interaction is most critical for stabilizing benzene within the cyclodextrin cavity ?
Answer
D. London dispersion forces
79
Which characteristic of carcerands is most important for the formation of stable inclusion complexes with guest molecules ?
Answer
C. Fixed cavity size - Provides a well-deļ¬ned space that matches the size of the guest
80
Which principle best explains the variability in binding aļ¬nities for diļ¬erent ligands when they interact with the same protein ?
Answer
A. Induced ļ¬t model - Describes how protein structures adapt to optimize interactions with diļ¬erent ligands
81
Ethyl-p-toluate give a peak in Mass spectrum with high intensity at
Answer
B. m/z = 91
82
What does gradient elution refers ?
Answer
C. Varying the mobile phase composition
83
In partition chromatography the mobile and stationary phases are ________ and ________ respectively.
Answer
D. Liquid and Liquid
84
The column eļ¬ciency can be increased
Answer
D. all the above
85
Give the Molecular formula of geraniol
Answer
A. CāāHāāO
86
The Given structure is
Answer
B. Thiamine
87
Spray reagent used for the detection of alkaloids
Answer
A. Dragendorļ¬ reagent
88
The spin value of the Ā¹ā¹F nucleus is
Answer
C. I = 1/2
89
Number of vibrational degrees of freedom for benzene
Answer
D. 30
90
Ibuprofen can be separated using ___________ chromatography.
Answer
C. Chiral column
91
Term symbol and eļ¬ective magnetic moment of are
Answer
A. and 0.84 BM
92
Number of lines expected in the EPR spectrum of bis(salicylaldimine) Copper (II) complex is
Answer
Question Cancelled
93
In the number of Mn-Mn bonds and terminal CO bonds attached to Fe are __________ and __________
Answer
B. 0 and 4
94
In and Mo(diene) , the carbonyl stretching frequency is at
Answer
C. and respectively
95
In the three iron atoms are at corners of ____________ and the number of bridging CO is ___________
Answer
D. isosceles triagnle and 2
96
Number of NMR signals given by the compound formed when the product of the reaction between Fe and 1, 3ā butadiene is reacted with HCl
Answer
C. 4
97
Which of the following statements is true about Creutz-Taube complex ?
Answer
C. It has pyrazine as the bridging ligand and is an intervalence complex
98
Which of the following statements is correct ? 1. Hemerythrin is dioxygen binding protein and contain porphyrin rings. 2. Hemerythrin is a non heme protein which binds reversibly. 3. Oxyhemerythrin is diamagnetic and contains Fe(III) ions. 4. Hemocyanin is a binding protein.
Answer
B. 2, 3, 4
99
Which of the following statements are correct ? 1. Octahedral complexes having electronic conļ¬gurations and show orbital contribution to magnetic moment. 2. Tetrahedral complexes having electronic conļ¬guration and show orbital contribution to magnetic moment. 3. Electronic conļ¬gurations and for low spin complexes show Jahn teller distortion. 4. In outer sphere electron transfer reactions the coordination sphere of the metal ion changes.
Answer
A. 1, 2, 3
100
Which of the following pair of compounds show quadrupole splitting in Mossbauer spectroscopy?
Answer
B. FeSOāĀ·7HāO and KāFe(CN)ā
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