| Post Name | Research Assistant Microbiology, Ayurveda Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 035/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 012/2025 |
| Date of Test | 26 February 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Phase contrast Microscope is best used to study
Answer
A. Live unstained bacteria and parasites
2
Which of the following enzymes mediate insertion and excision of gene cassettes ?
Answer
D. Integrase
3
Which of the following is correct regarding the DNA proof reading mechanism ?
Answer
B. 3 5 exonuclease activity
4
During bioļ¬lm development, the irreversible genomic reprogramming that confers antimicrobial tolerance MOST commonly begins at which stage ?
Answer
B. Microcolony formation with quorum sensing
5
In BLAST analysis (Bioinformatics), which parameter primarily determines the statistical signiļ¬cance of a sequence alignment ?
Answer
C. E-value
6
Which force primarily enables sample movement in an immunochromatographic strip ?
Answer
A. Capillary action
7
Which of the following statement is true for a Class II B2 biosafety cabinet used in BSL-3 labs ?
Answer
C. 100% air is exhausted through HEPA ļ¬lter
8
Regarding competitive ELISA, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT
Answer
D. It requires a secondary enzyme-labelled antibody for detection
9
A tertiary care hospital generates the following biomedical wastes. Which of the following is correctly matched with the appropriate BMW colour code as per Biomedical Waste Management Rules (India) ?
Answer
D. Expired cytotoxic drugs Yellow bag
10
All of the following materials or situations are contraindications for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilisation, EXCEPT
Answer
D. Heat-sensitive plastic surgical instruments
11
Identify the correct statement from the following :
Answer
C. Proline strongly disrupts -helix formation
12
Lactose is a disaccharide that upon hydrolysis, yields
Answer
D. D-Galactose and D-Glucose
13
Which of the following statements are correct ? i. The rigid component of bacterial cell walls is a hetero-polymer of alternating ( 4)-linked N- acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid residue ii. The glycosaminoglycan hyaluronic acid contains alternating residues of D-glucuronic acid and N- acetylglucosamine iii. Dextran is a heteropolysaccharide found in plant cell wall
Answer
B. Only i and ii
14
Which glycolytic step is irreversible and regulated ?
Answer
B. Fructose-6-phosphate Fructose-1, 6 bisphosphate
15
Which plant secondary metabolite absorbs ultraviolet (UV) radiation and thus provides protection to plant cells against UV rays ?
Answer
C. Flavonoids
16
Which of the following statement is/are correct about pentose phosphate pathway ? i. NADPH from the pentose phosphate pathway is critical for protecting erythrocytes from oxidative damage and deļ¬ciency of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase leads to serious clinical eļ¬ects. ii. The reactions of the non-oxidative part of the pentose phosphate pathway are irreversible. iii. Pentose phosphate pathway is active in liver, adrenal gland and adipose tissue.
Answer
B. Only i and iii
17
In the ļ¬rst committed step of purine biosynthesis, the amino group attached to C-1 of Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate to form 5-phosphoribosylamine is donated by
Answer
C. Glutamine
18
Hexokinase requires which metal ion for its catalytic activity ?
Answer
A. Mg2+
19
Microbial xylanases are widely used for
Answer
B. Pulp and paper industry
20
Which of the following lipid act as a second messenger ?
Answer
C. Diacylglycerol
21
Which one of the following techniques is not suitable for the conļ¬rmational dynamics of proteins ?
Answer
B. Fluorescent microscopy
22
Which of these is true for density gradient centrifugation ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
23
Expand MALDI-TOF MS
Answer
A. Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption Ionization-Time of Flight Mass Spectroscopy
24
Identify correct statement. Statement 1 : Diļ¬usion is an entropy driven process Statement 2 : High energy phosphate compounds have very large negative free energies of hydrolysis
Answer
A. Both the statements are correct
25
Separation of dissolved materials from colloidal particles in a solution by selective diļ¬usion through a semi permeable membrane is called
Answer
C. Dialysis
26
The diļ¬erence between facilitated diļ¬usion and active transport is
Answer
B. Active transport require energy but facilitated diļ¬usion doesn't require energy
27
The basis of Raman spectroscopy is
Answer
D. Inelastic scattering
28
The most appropriate combination in the calomel electrode of the pH meter is
Answer
Question Cancelled
29
Scientists won Nobel prize in 1952 for their discovery of NMR ?
Answer
A. Bloch and Purcell
30
Suggest a suitable method to purify a speciļ¬c antibody from serum
Answer
C. Aļ¬nity chromatography
31
The correct sequence of steps involved in nucleic acid extraction are
Answer
A. Cell lysis, precipitation, washing, elution
32
In electrophoresis, DNA migrate towards ____________
Answer
C. Anode/positive electrode
33
The PCR technique was developed by
Answer
C. Kary Mullis
34
All are true about transposition EXCEPT
Answer
B. Self replicating
35
All are methods of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria EXCEPT
Answer
D. Mutation
36
The phenotypic method for detecting mutants are all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Sequencing
37
Primers are generally _____________ in length.
Answer
B. 18-30 bp
38
Melting temperature is calculated by
Answer
A. 4(G + C) + 2(A + T)
39
Quantitative and qualitative detection of nucleic acid is done by
Answer
B. Real time PCR
40
Validity parameter for quantitative PCR depends on
Answer
D. All of the above
41
Which of the following best describes a recombinant vector vaccine ?
Answer
C. A vaccine that uses a modiļ¬ed virus to deliver genes from a pathogen into the host cells, prompting an immune response
42
Match the type of grafts with their correct descriptions. Column A Column B (Graft type) (Description) a. Autograft 1. Graft transplanted from one species to another species b. Allograft 2. Graft transplanted from one individual to another genetically identical individual c. Isograft 3. Graft transplanted from one part of the individual to another part of the same individual d. Xenograft 4. Graft transplanted from one individual to another individual of the same species
Answer
D. a ā 3, b ā 4, c ā 2, d ā 1
43
Small molecules that can induce an immune response only when attached to a large carrier protein are known as
Answer
B. Haptens
44
Which of the following factors does not inļ¬uence the immunogenicity of an antigen ?
Answer
D. None of the above
45
The maternal antibody present in the circulation of a two month old breast-fed baby is
Answer
Question Cancelled
46
BCG is used to protect against
Answer
A. Tuberculosis
47
A small protein subunit used in a vaccine may fail to stimulate T-cell immunity because of
Answer
D. HLA-related unresponsiveness
48
HIV binds to
Answer
B. CD4
49
Western blots are primarily used to detect
Answer
C. Protein
50
In Complement system, Complement component C3 is cleaved by
Answer
B. C3bBb
51
Which of the following is correct of Community associated MRSA (CA-MRSA) ?
Answer
B. Express Panton-Valentine toxin which causes tissue necrosis
52
Mechanism of action of cholera toxin
Answer
B. Causes ADP ribosylation of G protein and increases intracellular cAMP
53
Which of the following correct regarding Nipah virus ?
Answer
D. All of the above
54
Presence of ingested RBCs in cytoplasm of trophozoites is diagnostic of
Answer
C. Entamoeba histolytica
55
Which of the following is a conļ¬rmatory test for syphilis ?
Answer
C. Treponema Pallidum Haemagglutination Assay
56
Which of the following is correct about malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum ?
Answer
B. Double dot ring forms seen in the peripheral blood smear
57
All are correct about Bio ļ¬re ļ¬lm array Except
Answer
C. Can detect only bacterial pathogens
58
All of the following are correct of Corynebacterium diphtheriae Except.
Answer
A. Gram stain of throat swab from a diphtheria case shows gram positive bacilli with palisade arrangement
59
What is the protective Anti HBs titer in recipients of Hepatitis B vaccination ?
Answer
B. 10 mlU/ml
60
Which of the following is a false statement regarding Candida auris ?
Answer
B. Fluconazole is the drug of choice for invasive infections
61
____________ is the most widely used microbial system of choice for the expression of heterologous proteins
Answer
B. E. Coli
62
A process established in Finland to obtain single cell protein from the fungi to feed animals is known as
Answer
D. Pekilo process
63
____________ reduces the viscosity of fruit juice during the clarifying process and improves pulp pressing ability.
Answer
A. Pectinase
64
In batch fermentation, the growth rate of microorganisms primarily depends on
Answer
B. Substrate concentration
65
The parameter that best represents the eļ¬ciency of oxygen transfer in a bioreactor is
Answer
D. Volumetric oxygen transfer coeļ¬cient (kLa)
66
Polyhydroxyalkanoates (PHAs) are intracellularly accumulated by microorganisms mainly under conditions of
Answer
C. Excess carbon and limited nutrients
67
Secondary metabolites such as antibiotics are generally produced during which growth phase ?
Answer
C. Stationary phase
68
Which of the following is primarily a downstream processing step ?
Answer
C. Cell disruption
69
Penicillin is commercially produced using which fermentation method ?
Answer
D. Fed-batch fermentation
70
The main advantage of immobilized enzymes in industrial processes is
Answer
C. Ease of enzyme recovery and reuse
71
Heat shock proteins in thermophiles help them to survive high temperature stress mainly because they i. Increase membrane permeability ii. Prevent denaturation of proteins iii. Degrade ribosomal RNA iv. Inhibit transcription
Answer
B. ii
72
Which biosafety level (BSL) is generally recommended for work involving genetically modiļ¬ed microorganisms with moderate risk ?
Answer
A. BSL-2
73
Which of the following statements about bioaerosols is/are not true ? i. Bioaerosols include bacteria, fungi, viruses, pollen and their fragments ii. Bioaerosols can be present in both indoor and outdoor air iii. Bioaerosols consist only of pathogenic microorganisms iv. Bioaerosols cannot remain suspended in air
Answer
D. iii and iv
74
Which of the following is classiļ¬ed as in situ bioremediation ?
Answer
C. Biosparging
75
Which of the following techniques is used to study unculturable microorganisms in environmental samples?
Answer
D. Metagenomic analysis
76
Bt brinjal is genetically modiļ¬ed primarily to confer resistance against which pest ?
Answer
C. Fruit and shoot borer
77
Which of the following organisms is commonly used as a biological indicator of faecal contamination in water ?
Answer
B. Escherichia coli
78
Which C : N ratio is considered optimal for eļ¬cient composting ?
Answer
D. 25 ā 30 : 1
79
In the activated sludge process, the main function of aeration is to
Answer
B. Supply oxygen and keep microbes in suspension
80
If the Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) of wastewater is high but the Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is low, the wastewater is most likely to contain
Answer
C. Non-biodegradable or toxic organic compounds
81
Preformed toxin in food poisoning cases is produced by
Answer
Question Cancelled
82
The transport media and enrichment media which increases the isolation of Shigella are
Answer
C. Buļ¬ered glycerol saline, Selenite F broth
83
Non typhoidal Salmonella include all except.
Answer
B. Salmonella paratyphi A
84
Major causative agent of traverllers diarrhoea
Answer
B. ETEC
85
Detection of clostridium perfringens exotoxin in suspected food/stool specimen is by
Answer
D. All the above
86
Most common source of food borne botulinum is
Answer
B. Canned food
87
The best method to detect staphylococal enterotoxin in food is all except.
Answer
A. Quantitative culture
88
Indicator organisms of feacal pollution of water includes all except.
Answer
D. Acinetobacter
89
The infective dose of clostridium perfringens causing food poisoning is
Answer
D. 108 viable bacilli
90
Extrinsic factor that inļ¬uences microbial content of food is
Answer
D. a and b
91
The most appropriate techniques is for estimation of viable microbial populations in soil is
Answer
B. Plate count method
92
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the structure-function coupling and regulation of nitrogenase enzyme complex ? i. Electron transfer from the Fe-protein to the MoFe-protein requires ATP-dependent conformational changes in the Fe-protein. ii. The P-cluster functions as an intermediate electron carrier between the Fe-protein and the FeMo-cofactor. iii. Nitrogenase catalysis proceeds with obligatory hydrogen evolution even in the absence of dinitrogen
Answer
D. All of the above
93
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the rhizosphere eļ¬ect ? i. The rhizosphere eļ¬ect refers to the increase in microbial population density near the root surface compared to bulk soil. ii. Root exudates are a primary driver of changes in microbial activity in the rhizophere. iii. The rhizosphere eļ¬ect is uniform across all plant species and soil types.
Answer
A. Only i and ii
94
Which plant-microbe interaction is best described as associative ?
Answer
B. Endophytic colonization of rice roots by Azospirillum
95
Production of siderophores by rhizobacteria mainly contributes to plant growth promotion by
Answer
B. Enhancing iron availability
96
Which of the following is a key advantage of plant microbiome studies using high-throughput sequencing ?
Answer
C. Detection of unculturable microbial diversity
97
Which of the following statements are correct regarding assimilatory nitrate reduction in plants and microorganisms ? i. Assimilatory nitrate reduction converts nitrate to ammonia for incorporation into cellular biomass ii. Nitrate reductase invovled in assimilatory reduction is generally cytosolic in plants. iii. Assimilatory nitrate reduction serves as a major pathway for energy generation under anaerobic conditions.
Answer
A. Only i and ii
98
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding phyllosphere microorganisms ? i. The phyllosphere refers to the microbial habitat on aerial parts of plants, especially leaf surfaces. ii. Phyllosphere microorganisms are exposed to environmental stresses such as UV radiation and desiccation. iii. The phyllosphere generally supports higher microbial populations than the rhizosphere.
Answer
A. Only i and ii
99
Which enzyme complex is directly responsible for the reduction of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia in biological nitrogen ļ¬xation ?
Answer
C. Nitrogenase
100
In the carbon cycle, which microbial process directly contributes to long-term soil carbon sequestration ?
Answer
C. Humiļ¬cation
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