| Post Name | RESEARCH OFFICER (Economics and Statitics) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 057/2026 |
| Category Code | 414/2025 |
| Date of Test | 18 June 2026 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which among the following is not a property of Indifference curves ?
Answer
D. Two Indifference Curves must be Parallel to each other
2
In the Cobb-douglas production function, if α + β = 1, the production function
exhibits
Answer
C. Constant returns to scale
3
The service sector growth has been driven partly by information technology
and communication services.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Answer
C. 1 and 3 only
4
A monopolist determines equilibrium output at the point where
Answer
B. MR = MC
5
Which among the following equation used in national income estimation is incorrect?
Answer
B. NNP + NFIA = GNP
6
If national income increases at a slower rate than the population growth, per capita
income will
Answer
B. decrease
7
The fiscal policy in which government expenditure is increased, taxes are reduced,
or both are used together with the objective of reducing deflationary gap is called
Answer
A. Expansionary Fiscal Policy
8
Which of the following best describes the managed floating exchange rate system
followed in India ?
Answer
C. The exchange rate is determined by market forces with occasional intervention
by the central bank
9
In Human development Index (HdI), each dimension is normalized by using
Answer
A. dimension Index = Actual Value – minimum Value ÷ maximum Value –
minimum Value
10
A household deprived in nutrition, schooling, and sanitation is identified as poor
under
Answer
B. mPI approach
11
Full employment equilibrium in Harrod’s model occurs only when g_a = g_w = g_n. This situation was termed as
Answer
C. Golden Age
12
According to Hirschman, which of the following sectors should receive priority in
underdeveloped countries ?
Answer
B. Strategic sectors with strong linkage effects
13
Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the Consolidated Fund of
India ?
Answer
C. 266
14
Which committee recommended enactment of the FRBm Act ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
15
Which economist is best known for developing the theory of fiscal federalism
related to vertical fiscal imbalance ?
Answer
B. Richard musgrave
16
Which of the following best describes the primary role of the State Finance
Commission in India’s fiscal federal structure ?
Answer
C. Vertical imbalance between State Governments and local Bodies
17
In the context of structural adjustment reforms, which one of the following is most
closely associated with “market-determined allocation of resources” ?
Answer
C. liberalization
18
Which of the following institutions is associated with the concepts of “Team India Hub”
and “Knowledge and Innovation Hub” ?
Answer
B. NITI Aayog
19
Consider the following statements regarding India’s economic structure.
1. India skipped the classical path of industrialization followed by Western
economies.
2. The manufacturing sector’s share in GDP has remained relatively stagnant.
3. The service sector growth has been driven partly by information technology
and communication services.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Answer
D. 1,2 and3
20
Consider the following statements about KIIFB.
1. It is a statutory body created by the Kerala State Legislature.
2. It mobilises funds through bonds and loans for infrastructure projects.
3. It finances only centrally sponsored schemes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer
A. 1 and 2 only
21
mSmEs in India are known for their dual role in
Answer
B. They contribute to GdP and also absorb surplus labour from agriculture
22
Consider the following statements.
1. Care economy improves female labour force participation.
2. Care work has no economic value.
3. Investing in care infrastructure supports inclusive growth.
Which of the statements are correct ?
Answer
A. 1 and 3 only
23
In econometrics, the term “BlUE’’ refers to an estimator that is
Answer
B. Best linear Unbiased Estimator under Gauss-markov assumptions
24
Adjusted R2 is used to
Answer
B. Penalize unnecessary independent variables
25
If a regression model includes an intercept and all category dummies, it leads to
Answer
B. multicollinearity
26
Let T : P₂(ℝ) → P₂(ℝ) be the linear transformation defined by T(p(x)) = p(x + 1), ∀p(x) ∈ P₂(ℝ). If M is the matrix representation of T with respect to the ordered basis {1, x, x²} of P₂(ℝ), then which one of the following is true?
Answer
C. 1 is the only eigenvalue of M
27
Let M = [[−2, 0, 0], [3, 2, 3], [4, −1, x]] for some real number x. Suppose that −2 and 3 are eigenvalues of M. If M³[0, 1, 1]ᵀ = [0, 125, 125]ᵀ, then which one of the following is true?
Answer
B. x ≠ 5, and the matrix M² + M is invertible
28
Consider the following statements.
P : If a system of linear equations Ax = b has a unique solution, where A is an
m × n matrix and b is an m × 1 matrix, then m = n.
Q : For a subspace W of a nonzero vector space V, whenever u ∈ V\W and
v ∈ V\W, then u + v ∈ V\W.
Which one of the following holds ?
Answer
D. Both P and Q are false
29
Which of the following is a subspace of the real vector space ℝ³?
Answer
A. {(x, y, z) ∈ ℝ³ : (y + z)² + (2x − 3y)² = 0}
30
The rank of the 4 × 6 matrix 1 0 0 1 1 0 with entries in , is
0 1 0 1 0 1
0 0 1 0 1 1
Answer
D. 4
31
Let 1 ≤ p < q < ∞. Consider the following statements. I. ℓ^p ⊂ ℓ^q. II. L^p[0, 1] ⊂ L^q[0, 1], where ℓ^p = {(x₁, x₂, …) : Σᵢ₌₁^∞ |xᵢ|^p < ∞} and L^p[0, 1] = {f : [0, 1] → ℝ : f measurable and ∫₀¹ |f|^p dμ < ∞}. Which of the above statements is/are true?
Answer
B. Only I
32
In a normed linear space (X, ||. ||), the only subsets which are both open and
closed are
Answer
A. ∅ and X
33
ℓᵖ forms a Hilbert space
Answer
B. only for p = 2
34
let G be a group of order 39 such that it has exactly one subgroup of order 3 and
exactly one sub-group of order 13. Then, which one of the following statements is
true ?
Answer
A. G is necessarily cyclic
35
Let G be a finite group. Then G is necessarily cyclic if the order of G is
Answer
B. 7
36
Consider the group G = {A ∈ M₂(ℝ) : AAᵀ = I₂} with respect to matrix multiplication. Let Z(G) = {A ∈ G : AB = BA, for all B ∈ G}. Then, the cardinality of Z(G) is
Answer
B. 2
37
Consider the following statements.
1. Every infinite group has infinitely many sub-groups.
2. There are only finitely many non-isomorphic groups of a given finite order.
Then
Answer
A. Both | and Il are true
38
limₙ→∞ [√((n + a)(n + b)) − n] = ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
39
Which of the following statements about real sequences is not true ?
Answer
B. The sequence (sin n) is convergent
40
Which of the given series does not converge?
Answer
A. Σ 1/n
41
Define g : R → R by g(x) : = 2x f or x rational, and g(x) : = x + 1 f or x irrational.
The set of all points at which g is continuous.
Answer
C. {1}
42
Which of the following statements about the sequence of functions fₙ(x) = x/n is not true?
Answer
A. fₙ(x) = x/n is uniformly convergent on R
43
How many roots does the equation z⁷ − 2z⁵ + 6z³ − z + 1 = 0 have in the disk |z| = 1?
Answer
Question Cancelled
44
Which of the following statements is true about a simply connected region Ω?
Answer
A. If f(z) is analytic in Ω, ∮γ f(z) dz = 0 for every cycle γ homologous to zero in Ω.
45
Which of these functions is not analytic anywhere in the complex plane?
Answer
D. f(z) = z̄
46
∮|z|=2 dz/(z² + 1) = ?
Answer
B. 0
47
For the function f(z) = , what is the residue at the pole z = – 1 ?
(z − 1)2
2
−1 1 −1
Answer
C. —
48
The orthogonal trajectories of the family of parabolas y² = 4ax are
Answer
A. 2x² + y² = k
49
The solution of the differential equation eʸ dx + (xeʸ + 2y)dy = 0 is
Answer
C. xeʸ + y² = c
50
The general solution of x²y″ + xy′ − y = 0 is of the form
Answer
B. y = c₁x + c₂x⁻¹
51
If X follows Chi-square distribution with 7 degrees of freedom, then the values of
E(X) and V(X) are
Answer
A. 7, 14
52
If Xᵢ, i = 1, 2, ..., 15 are independence random variables following N(2, 1), then the variance of sample mean is
Answer
B. 1/15
53
If T follows students-t distribution with n degrees of freedom then T2 follows
Answer
B. F(1, n)
54
Moment generating function of binomial distribution B(n, p) with n = 10, p = 1/3 is
Answer
D. (2/3 + eᵗ/3)¹⁰
55
If X follows students-t with 5 degrees of freedom, then V(X) is
1 3 5
Answer
C. —
56
A sample of size n = 50 is drawn using SRSWOR from a population of size N = 1000 and S² = 100. Then V(X̄) is
Answer
B. 1.9
57
A bag A contains 4 Red and 3 Black balls and another bag B contains 2 Red and 5 Black balls. One bag is selected at random and a ball is drawn. It happens to be Red. What is the probability that it come from first bag?
Answer
C. 2/3
58
When a sample of size n is taken using simple random sampling with replacement
which of the following is need not true ?
a. sample mean is unbiased for population mean.
b. sample mean is consistent for population mean.
σ2
c. V(samplemean) = .
n
d. s2 is an unbiased estimate of population variance.
Answer
B. b
59
let {Xn} be a sequence of random variables such that Xn → X and g(.) be a
p
continuous function. Then which of the following statements are true ?
a. g(Xn ) → g(X)
d
b. g(Xn ) → g(X)
p
Answer
C. Both a and b
60
A stratified population has two strata with N₁ = 200 and N₂ = 300 under proportional allocation for total sample size n = 50. Then the sample size in second stratum is
Answer
B. 30
61
Under SRSWR, if sample size is doubled, the variance of sample mean becomes
Answer
B. Half
62
If sampling fraction is negligible, then finite population correction is approximately
Answer
A. 1
63
Variance of estimator in SRSWOR is always
Answer
C. Less than SRSWR
64
Which of the following best characterizes a UmVU estimator ?
Answer
B. Unbiased and minimum variance among all unbiased estimators
65
The Rao-Blackwell theorem primarily improves an estimator by
Answer
B. Reducing variance via conditioning on sufficient statistic
66
If a statistic is complete and sufficient, then the UMVU estimator
Answer
B. Is unique if it exists
67
In hypothesis testing, the probability of rejecting a true null hypothesis is called
Answer
C. Significance level
68
The Kolmogorov-Smirnov test is based on
Answer
B. maximum deviation between empirical and theoretical distribution functions
69
The mann-Whitney U test is most appropriate when
Answer
B. Comparing two independent samples without normality assumption
70
Under Gauss-markov assumptions, the least squares estimator is
Answer
B. Best linear unbiased estimator
71
multicollinearity in multiple regression leads to
Answer
B. Inflated variances of regression coefficients
72
The autocorrelation function
Answer
B. Serial dependence structure in time series
73
ARImA models are primarily used for
Answer
B. Time series forecasting with differencing
74
Fisher’s Ideal Index satisfies which criteria ?
Answer
C. Both time and factor reversal tests
75
Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) measures
Answer
B. Average number of daughters per woman accounting mortality
76
A sole proprietor withdraws cash of Rs. 5,000 for personal use and mistakenly
debits the Salaries account. What is the correct rectification entry ?
Answer
A. debit drawings a/c, Credit Salaries a/c
77
Which of the following items would not appear in the Profit and Loss Account of a
sole proprietor ?
Answer
A. drawings by the proprietor
78
A sole proprietor records goods withdrawn for personal use as drawings. Which
concept is applied ?
Answer
B. Business entity concept
79
Under fixed capital method, drawings are recorded in
Answer
B. Current account
80
Garner v. murray applies when
Answer
C. Partner becomes insolvent
81
A partnership deed is silent on the profit-sharing ratio. The partners did not
contribute capital in the ratio of their expected profit shares. Which rule under the
Indian Partnership Act will apply regarding the profit-sharing ratio ?
Answer
B. Profits to be shared equally
82
debentures issued at discount result in
Answer
B. Capital loss
83
As per Companies Act 2013, financial statements include
Answer
C. Balance sheet, P and L, cash flow statement
84
Profit earned before incorporation is treated as
Answer
B. Capital profit
85
Recognition of identifiable assets at fair value during acquisition is governed by
Answer
B. Ind AS 103
86
A company values employees as assets. This conflicts with
Answer
B. money measurement concept
87
Reduction of share capital to write off accumulated losses is
Answer
B. Internal reconstruction
88
In a Contract Costing scenario, how is the “Work-in-Progress” (WIP) typically
valued for the Balance Sheet ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
89
In Process Costing, “Equivalent Production” is used to
Answer
B. Convert partially completed units into an equivalent number of finished units for
cost allocation
90
Which of the following best describes “Target Costing” ?
Answer
C. Deducting the required profit margin from the competitive market price to determine
allowable cost
91
A company has a Break-even Point of Rs. 40,000 and actual sales of Rs. 1,00,000.
If the P/V ratio is 40%, what is the actual Profit ?
Answer
A. Rs. 24,000
92
For an individual to be considered “Resident and Ordinarily Resident” in India, they
must meet
Answer
B. One basic condition and both additional conditions regarding past residence
93
The “Alternate minimum Tax”
Answer
B. Non-corporate taxpayers who have claimed deductions under specific sections like
80-IA to 80RRB
94
Under the GST framework, “Composite Supply” is defined as
Answer
B. Two or more taxable supplies of goods or services which are naturally bundled and
supplied in conjunction with each other in the ordinary course of business
95
Which of the following is a mandatory condition for a registered person to claim
Input Tax Credit (ITC) ?
Answer
B. The supplier must have actually paid the tax to the government and filed the return
96
In a Monopoly market, the Profit Maximization condition occurs where
Answer
B. marginal Revenue = marginal Cost
97
Which of the following occurs when a firm experiences “Diseconomies of Scale” ?
Answer
B. The long-run Average Cost curve begins to rise as output increases
98
A contract where only one party has to perform his promise is known as
Answer
B. Unilateral Contract
99
In a Contract of Guarantee, the person in respect of whose default the guarantee
is given is called the
Answer
C. Principal debtor
100
Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, if a cheque is “dishonoured for insufficiency
of funds,” the drawer can be punished with
Answer
B. Imprisonment upto 2 years or a fine upto twice the cheque amount, or both
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