| Post Name | Respiratory Technician Gr.II - Medical Education Date of Test 26-11-2024 |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 124/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 693/2022 |
| Date of Test | 26 November 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
All the following are features of right lung except
Answer
C. Prescence of cardiac notch
2
The volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximum forceful expiration is called
Answer
D. Residual volume
3
Which of the following muscle is the abductor of vocal cord?
Answer
B. Posterior cricoarytenoid
4
All the following statements are true regarding right lung-except
Answer
A. Impression of arch of aorta is seen on the right lung
5
Which of the following cells produce surfactant?
Answer
B. Type 2 alveolar cells
6
N-95 air ļ¬lter respirator can ļ¬lter particles of size
Answer
B. 0.3 micron
7
Solution used for cleaning the tracheostomy tube
Answer
D. Hydrogen peroxide
8
According to WHO, duration of entire hand washing procedure is
Answer
A. 40-60 seconds
9
Where would you put a soiled sponge after respiratory care?
Answer
C. Yellow container
10
Selvon solution contains
Answer
A. Cetrimide + Chlorhexidine
11
Process by which water and medicated solution are broken down to small droplets for inhalation.
Answer
B. Nebulisation
12
Non aerosol powdered medication are delivered by
Answer
A. Diskus inhalers
13
Use of spacer with inhaler will
Answer
D. Increase the eļ¬ectiveness of inhalation
14
Clients are asked to shake the inhaler well before use to
Answer
C. Aerosolise the particles
15
Inhalers administer drugs to _______ part of respiratory system.
Answer
B. Lower airways
16
Which using metered dose inhalers, how much time a client has to hold the medication in respiratory tract?
Answer
C. 10 seconds
17
Amount of medication left in the inhaler can be determined by
Answer
C. Both (A) and (B)
18
Turbuhaler is an example of
Answer
A. Dry powder inhaler
19
While doing nebulisation, the drug used is commonly diluted in normal saline because it results in
Answer
B. Less damage to lung tissue
20
Which among the following is the most suitable position for nebulisation?
Answer
C. Fowlers
21
For acceptable repeatability of spirometry, value of two largest FVC should be within
Answer
B. 150 ml
22
In an obstructive type of spirometry, results are
Answer
C. FEV1 ratio-reduced, FVC-normal, FEV1-reduced
23
Variability of obstruction in bronchodilator reversibility testing as per BTS guidelines.
Answer
D. 12% FEV1 and 200 ml
24
All the following tests assess small airway function except
Answer
D. DLco
25
A patient with noisy breathing has following ļ¬ow volume curve
Answer
C. Fixed obstruction
26
What does the ļ¬ow volume loop imply
Answer
C. Cough during procedure
27
Following spirometry results are suggestive of
Answer
C. Restriction
28
Following are the values from a spirometry report of a 40 year old male patient with cough and recent onset dyspnoea. Probable diagnosis will be
Answer
C. Asthma
29
A patient with a VC of 2.0L performs several DLCO-SB manoeuvres with these results The pulmonary function technologist should
Answer
A. Average the ļ¬rst two trials and report the result
30
A pulmonary function technician has reported that the back extrapolation of FVC is more than 5% FVC in his report
Answer
A. There is a slow start of the expiratory eļ¬ort and the PFT should be discarded
31
While doing a spirometry, the technician wrongly selected the race caucasian for a South Indian patient
Answer
C. The FVC percentage predicted will be reported as low
32
Correct performance of DLCO (single breath) requires that the subject inspire atleast
Answer
B. 85% of VC
33
While doing DLCO procedure by single breath hold, all are true except
Answer
C. A wait period of 2 minutes is required before you repeat the DLCO procedure
34
Regarding CPET (Cardio Pulmonary Excercise Test) (i) Expired ventilation (VE) increases linearly with till max is reached (ii) A failure to reach Anaerobic threshold is common in cardiac failure (iii) In a normal person anaerobic threshold occurs at about 35% of max (iv) Blood lactate levels increase towards the late phase of CPET
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iv) are correct
35
Regarding calibration of a spirometer, identify the wrong statement
Answer
C. Calibrations syringe volume measured should be within 5%
36
Regarding FeNO (Fraction of eNO in exhaled breath) estimation, all are true EXCEPT
Answer
C. FeNO values are higher in smokers
37
All of the following are indications for terminating an excercise test for CPET EXCEPT :
Answer
A. A systolic pressure of 180 mm Hg on excercise
38
Which of the following pulmonary functions can be used for assessing respiratory impairment and disability?
Answer
D. MVV
39
In a polysomnography, for data collection following recordings are done except
Answer
D. End Tidal recordings
40
Which of the following physical measurement is least important for a sleep study
Answer
C. Head circumference
41
The proposed beneļ¬ts of postural drainage therapy are all except
Answer
C. Improve the and FVC
42
Postural drainage therapy include
Answer
D. 1 and 2
43
If Right lung secretions has to be drained during percussion
Answer
B. patient should lie in (L) lateral position
44
Tapotiment is also called
Answer
C. Percussion
45
Percussion is contraindicated in all except
Answer
C. Atelectasis of unilateral lung
46
Following postural drainage therapy, the improvement beneļ¬t can be assumed by all except
Answer
D. Sputum production <25ml/day after good hydration of patent
47
Eļ¬ective cough requires all except
Answer
A. Forced inspiration
48
Mechanism that primary help to clear out secretions include
Answer
C. Oscillating PEP devices
49
Primary components, of pulmonary rehabilitation exercise include all except
Answer
A. Jogging
50
Examples of oscillating PEP devices for forcing out secretion include
Answer
A. Acapella
51
High ļ¬ow oxygen devices includes all except
Answer
A. face mask simple
52
Non rebreathing reservoir masks have to be started at ļ¬ow rates of
Answer
C. 10-15 l/mte
53
Essential components of pulmonary rehabilitation are
Answer
D. All of the above
54
Following are contraindications of rehabilitation except
Answer
B. exercise induced desaturation
55
Dyspnoea scores used in endurance training are all except
Answer
D. 10 mte shuļ¬e walk test
56
Signiļ¬cant proven beneļ¬ts of pulmonary rehabilitation are all except
Answer
D. Mortality beneļ¬t
57
Venturi mask with 60% delivery is
Answer
C. Green
58
Rox index is used for tapering oļ¬ (weaning oļ¬) patient from
Answer
C. HFNO
59
Monitoring of patients on therapy include
Answer
D. All of the above
60
Target oxygen saturation for chronic respiratory illness
Answer
A. 88-92%-
61
Which of the following is not a cause of metabolic alkalosis?
Answer
A. Chronic aldosterone deļ¬ciency
62
Which of the following regarding anion gap is false?
Answer
B. Anion gap = (Naāŗ + CaĀ²āŗ) ā (Clā» + HCOāā»)
63
Choose the correct response regarding urine anion gap
Answer
A. The usual value is negative (between - 25 and - 50 mEq/L)
64
Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding acid-base disorders? i. In metabolic alkalosis expected compensation is calculated using Winter's formula ii. In metabolic acidosis the compensatory response is decreased iii. In acute respiratory acidosis increase 1mEq/L per 10 mmHg rise in iv. In metabolic acidosis decreases 0.6 mmHg per mEq/L rise in
Answer
D. only ii and iii
65
Which of the following is a cause of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis?
Answer
D. Both 1 and 2
66
The frequent use of nasogastric suction causes which acid-base disorder?
Answer
D. Metabolic alkalosis
67
In the presence of a high anion gap metabolic acidosis a gap-gap ratio >1 indicates the coexistence of which acid-base disorder?
Answer
A. Metabolic alkalosis
68
Choose the correct statement regarding corrected anion gap (AGc).
Answer
B. AGc = AG + 2.5 x (4.5 - [albumin in g / Dl])
69
The normal is maintained at
Answer
C. 40 nEq/L
70
Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by
Answer
A. Ph>7.45, ā plasma ā
71
Which of the following is not a mechanism of PEEP?
Answer
D. None of the above
72
Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication to NIV?
Answer
D. Acute pulmonary edema
73
In which of the following conditions a CPAP is used
Answer
A. OSA (Obstructive Sleep Apnoea)
74
The maximum evidence for use of NIV exist for
Answer
A. Acute exacerbation of COPD
75
Which of the following is an inappropriate NIV setting in acute exacerbation of COPD?
Answer
A. Slow rise time
76
The term "iron lung" in relation to mechanical ventilation refers to
Answer
C. Negative pressure ventilation
77
Symptoms of chronic hypoventilation include all except
Answer
D. Diplopia
78
Which of the following is not a beneļ¬cial eļ¬ect of NIV?
Answer
D. Reduces chances of pneumothorax in a COPD patient
79
The advantages of nasal mask over full face mask include all except
Answer
B. Reduce mouth leak
80
Which of the following interventions is inappropriate in a patient who develops mucus plugging while on NIV?
Answer
A. Increasing oxygen ļ¬ow rate
81
Which of the following is not a complication associated with NIV therapy?
Answer
D. Increased risk of respiratory tract infection as compared to invasive mechanical ventilation
82
A patient with COPD exacerbation was put on NIV and maximal medical therapy. The initial ventilator settings include IPAP of 8 cm of water and EPAP of 5 cm of water. kept at 0.5. ABG repeated after 30 minutes revealed pH of 7.30. of 70 mm Hg. of 60 mm Hg. No signiļ¬cant leaks were present and patient's respiratory rate is 30/min. Choose the most appropriate ventilator setting in this case.
Answer
C. Increase IPAP level to 10 cm of
83
Which of the following is not the anticipated eļ¬ect by increasing EPAP in NIV?
Answer
C. Increase in tidal volume
84
The beneļ¬ts of using heated humidiļ¬ers in a patient on CPAP include all except
Answer
C. Improved tidal volume
85
A 70 year old male COPD patient presented to ER in acute hypercarbic exacerbation. The respiratory therapist put the patient on NIV. The interventions that will reduce intrinsic PEEP in this patient include all except
Answer
D. Decrease inspiratory ļ¬ow
86
An appropriate intervention when low pressure alarm is seen for a patient on mechanical ventilator is
Answer
D. Check for underinļ¬ated cuļ¬
87
Cuļ¬ pressure in the tracheostomy tube is maintained at __________ to reduce the risk for tracheal damage
Answer
B. 20-30 cm
88
Mallampatti airway classiļ¬cation scale to predict relative diļ¬culty of intubation shows a score of three. Finding indicates
Answer
D. Posterior pharynx cannot be seen, base of uvula is exposed
89
Murphy's eye on endotracheal tube is useful to
Answer
A. Enable ventilation if tip is occluded
90
Critical step before intubating a patient is
Answer
C. Preoxygenate the patient with 100% oxygen
91
Tracheostomy tube that permits speech through upper airway is
Answer
A. Fenestrated tube
92
Ventilatory mode that augments inspiration for a spontaneously breathing patient is
Answer
D. Pressure support ventilation
93
When doing tracheostomy suctioning,
Answer
A. Apply suction while withdrawing catheter
94
An appropriate measure to prevent ventilator associated pneumonia is
Answer
D. Provide mouth care using chlorhexidine every fourth hourly
95
Continuous suction should not be applied for more than ________ during tracheostomy suctioning.
Answer
B. 10-15 sec
96
________ is seen when laryngoscope blade is properly placed for endotracheal intubation
Answer
B. Vocal cords
97
Standard ļ¬rst line therapy in patients with obstructive lung disease
Answer
A. Noninvasive ventilation
98
Medication that is used as induction agent for rapid sequence intubation is
Answer
C. Etomidate
99
Most reliable method of monitoring the correct placement of endotracheal tube is
Answer
D. Continuous waveform capnography
100
If arterial blood gas of patient on mechanical ventilator shows low pH and low HCO3, which action would be appropriate
Answer
A. Increase tidal volume and increase respiratory rate
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