| Post Name | Sanitary Chemist - Kerala Water Authority |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 069/2024 |
| Category Code | 127/2023 |
| Date of Test | 13 June 2024 |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The permissible value of turbidity for drinking water in Silica Turbidity Unit is
Answer
C. 10 ppm
2
Which among the following is not an example for artificial sweetener ?
Answer
B. Ethyl maltol
3
mackereth Oxygen cell for dissolved oxygen measurement is used in
Answer
C. membrane electrode method
4
Permanent black dyes are often produced by
Answer
C. Para-phenylene diamine
5
Benzyl dimethyl octyl ammonium chloride is an example for
Answer
B. Cationic detergent
6
Which among the following is most essential to be included in the recipe for making
toothpaste ?
Answer
D. Calcium pyrophosphate and sodium dodecyl sulphate
7
Reagent commonly used to determine the hardness of water titrimetrically is
Answer
D. disodium salt of ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid
8
A precipitate of 0.110 g of CaC2O4.H2O was obtained from 250 ml of water sample.
Express the content of calcium in ppm.
Answer
C. 120 ppm
9
High density Polyethylene, low density Polyethylene, Polystyrene and Polypropylene
can be identified by using SPI Resin Identification Codes respectively in the following
order
Answer
B. 2, 4, 6, 5
10
Which among the following statements are considered suitable regarding the softening
of water ?
I. Addition of sufficient quantities of soap helps to remove all objectionable Ca2+
ions.
II. Permanent hardness of water caused due to the presence of carbonates of
calcium and magnesium can be removed by boiling.
III. Addition of Na2CO3 can be used as a method to remove temporary hardness.
IV. Addition of sodium phosphate forms complexes in which Ca2+ ions are
trapped.
Answer
B. I and IV are correct
11
Bismuth vanadate, lithopone, mineral haematite and copper phthalocyanine pigments
are used for giving following colour respectively
Answer
A. yellow, White, Red, Blue
12
Which of the following statements regarding a lipstick are incorrect ?
I. A large proportion of wax is added to lipstick to make it soft and to create glow.
II. lakes are produced by mixing wax with some coloured metallic salts.
III. Perfumes are added to cover up the unpleasant fatty odour of oil.
IV. Bromo acid dyes are responsible for the colour of modern lipsticks.
Answer
D. I and II
13
An example for carbamate pesticide
Answer
C. Carbofuran
14
Match the following with respect to BIS specifications on drinking water quality as
per IS 10500-2012.
Characteristics Limit
1. Chloride a. 75 mg/L
2. Calcium b. 1.0 mg/L
3. Free residual chlorine c. 250 mg/L
4. Total dissolved solids d. 0.2 mg/L
5. Fluoride e. 500 mg/L
Answer
D. 1-c,2-a,3-d,4-e,5-b
15
maximum density of water occurs at
Answer
B. 39.2°F
16
The maximum percentage of carbon present in urea is
Answer
D. 20%
17
How many of the following compounds show intramolecular hydrogen bonding ?
Salicylic acid, ethanol, o-nitrobenzoic acid, water, 2-nitrophenol, ammonia
Answer
C. 3
18
Which among the following statements regarding fertilizers are not correct ?
I. mixed fertilizers containing nitrogenous, phosphatic and potash fertilizers in
varying proportions are known as NPK fertilizers.
II. Urea is the best among the nitrogenous fertilizer because it leaves behind only
carbon dioxide after being assimilated by plants.
III. Calcium cyanamide mixed with nitrogen is called as nitrolim and a mixture of
calcium phosphate and nitrogen is called as super phosphate of lime.
Answer
C. Statement III
19
Chemical coagulation and filtration process involved in waste water treatment is
carried out during
Answer
D. Tertiary treatment
20
BUNA-N and BUNA-S are formed when 1, 3 butadiene combines with the following
compounds in the presence of sodium respectively
Answer
A. CH₂=CH−CN and CH₂=CH−C₆H₅
21
Name the scientist who was not involved in developing the theory of indicators.
Answer
D. Albert Einstein
22
If you decided to perform a weak acid/strong base titration, which of the following
would you use as an indicator ?
Answer
A. Phenolphthalein
23
Determine the number of moles of Ag₂CrO₄ that will dissolve in 1.00 L of 0.010 M K₂CrO₄ solution, given that Kₛₚ for Ag₂CrO₄ = 9.0 × 10⁻¹².
Answer
B. 1.5 × 10–5
24
most electrical mishaps are caused by
Answer
D. All of the above
25
Which category of flammable liquid does the solvent isopropanol belong to ?
Answer
A. Class I B
26
Pictograms on a GHS safety data sheet or label are
Answer
C. Symbols that give you specific information about chemical hazards
27
Which of the following information cannot be found in MSDS ?
Answer
B. medicine to be taken by the affected person if exposed to the chemical
28
The process of titration that takes place between KCI and AgNO 3 is commonly
referred to as
Answer
A. Precipitation titration
29
The number of gm-mole of the solute per kg of solution is known as
Answer
Question Cancelled
30
Choose a compound that is not a metallochromic indicator.
Answer
A. methyl orange
31
What does the strength of an acid depend upon ?
Answer
C. The extent to which the acid ionizes
32
According to the SHAB principle, hard acid
Answer
D. not very polarizable
33
When a non-volatile solute is added to a solvent, what is the difference in vapor
pressure expressed as a faction of original vapor pressure equal to ?
Answer
A. mole fraction of solute in liquid phase
34
The molarity of ammonia in an aqueous solution is 11.9 mol dm–3. Calculate the
fraction of ammonia in the solution. The solution’s density is 0.92 gcm–3.
Answer
A. 0.229
35
Which of the following may not be a strong electrolyte ?
Answer
B. NH3
36
Formic acid has a concentration of 0.1 m and Ka is 1.77 × 10–4. What is the value
of the degree of dissociation ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
37
Calculate the work performed when 2 moles of hydrogen expand isothermally and
reversibly at 25°C from 15 to 45l.
Answer
C. –1309.7 cal
38
The rate law relates the rate of a chemical reaction to
Answer
B. The concentrations of reactants
39
According to the collision model, the atoms located at the peak of the potential energy
“hill” are referred to as
Answer
D. Transition state
40
The maximum efficiency of a heat engine can be achieved when
Answer
C. The temperature of the source is maximum and that of the sink is minimum
41
In pure water at 25°C, the concentration of water is
Answer
A. 55.5 m
42
Ion product (Kw) of water at 25°C is
Answer
C. 1×10–14 m2
43
The concentration of H+ ion in a solution is 100 m, then pOH of that solution is
Answer
B. 14
44
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
i.
Answer
B. Only iii
45
Sphingomyelin is composed of
Answer
D. Sphingosine, fatty acid and phosphocholine
46
Which of the following component’s presence alters the fluidity of plasma membrane ?
Answer
A. Cholesterol
47
Which of the following sentence(s) about mitochondria is/are correct ?
i. Electron transport chain components are located in the inner membrane of
mitochondria.
ii. Mitochondria contain specific DNA and ribosomes.
iii. mitochondria play a crucial role in triggering apoptosis.
iv. Mitochondria contain enzymes of detoxification of drugs.
Answer
C. Only i, ii and iii
48
Which of the following sentence(s) about colloidal solution is/are correct ?
i. The size of the colloidal particle (solute) in the solution ranges between
200 to 300 nanometer.
ii. The dispersion medium possess equal and opposite electric charges as
compared to the dispersed phase.
iii. Colloidal particles will not pass through a semi-permeable membrane.
Answer
C. Only ii and iii
49
Which of the following is not a high-energy compound ?
Answer
D. Glycerol-3-phosphate
50
Which one of the following is an example of emulsion ?
Answer
A. milk
51
Name the type of rotor in which tubes containing the samples are placed at an
angle of 30° to the horizontal.
Answer
B. Fixed angle rotor
52
Which of the following is not used as a gradient material in density gradient
centrifugation ?
Answer
D. Agarose
53
Vitamin d is detected in thin layer chromatography by
Answer
B. antimony trichloride
54
Strong cation exchange resins have a ________ functional group.
Answer
B. sulfonate
55
A safety measure to prevent radiation hazards is
Answer
B. storing radioactive samples in thick-walled lead containers
56
Which among the following is the least preferred carrier gas in gas chromatography ?
Answer
A. Hydrogen
57
The half-life of radioisotope Iodine-131 is
Answer
B. 8 days
58
denaturing agents used in gel electrophoresis disturb the protein’s
Answer
Question Cancelled
59
The absorbance of a blue-green solution has to be measured using a colorimeter.
The preferred wavelength range is
Answer
Question Cancelled
60
Which among the following statements is correct for the radiation source and
wavelength in a UV-visible spectrophotometer ?
Answer
C. deuterium arc lamp for 190 – 400 nm
61
Which among the following is a non-competitive inhibitor of the enzyme pyruvate
kinase ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
62
The principal technique not used for immobilization of enzymes is
Answer
C. ionic bonding
63
Which among the following factors do not affect the rate of enzyme catalyzed
reaction ?
Answer
C. Enzyme size
64
Therapeutic enzymes have
Answer
C. low Km and high Vmax
65
Acetyl choline esterase belongs to the _______ class of enzymes.
Answer
B. hydrolase
66
Which among the following catalytic strategies is followed by chymotrypsin ?
Answer
A. Covalent catalysis
67
Example of a lysosomal enzyme is
Answer
B. cathepsin d
68
Which among the following coenzymes has the quaternary nitrogen of the thiazole
ring as active/functional moiety ?
Answer
C. Thiamine Pyrophosphate (TPP)
69
AdAPT is
Answer
B. Antibody directed Abzyme Prodrug Therapy
70
The slope of lineweaver-Burk plot is equal to
Answer
B. Km/Vmax
71
Which statement is correct ?
Answer
A. Greater the numerical aperture, the greater the resolving power
72
Which type of microscope is more suitable to examine hanging drop preparation of
micro-organism ?
Answer
B. Dark field microscope
73
Which culture method is used to isolate both aerobic and anaerobic organism from
a sample ?
Answer
B. Pour plate method
74
Identify a semisolid media.
Answer
C. Stuart’s media
75
Name the selective media to isolate Staphylococcus aureus.
Answer
D. mannitol salt agar
76
Which statement is correct for negative staining ?
Answer
A. Negative staining employs the use of acidic stain
77
The catalyst present in the Gas Pak Anaerobic System
Answer
D. Palladium
78
Why vegetative cells are more sensitive to heat than spores ?
Answer
B. Higher level of water activity of vegetative cells than spores
79
Which method of sterilization is known as cold sterilization ?
Answer
C. Radiation
80
Which of the following is not a gaseous sterilizing agent ?
Answer
D. Phenol
81
The protozoan pathogen causing Primary Amoebic meningoencephalitis which is
a waterborne disease is
Answer
C. Naegleria fowleri
82
Sanitary Survey is the
Answer
A. Inspection of the water system
83
During water purification, rapid sand filters are used for
Answer
B. To physically trap fine particles and flocs
84
What is the main objective of testing for the presence of coliforms during water
analysis ?
Answer
A. To indicate possible fecal contamination
85
The test procedure used to measure the amount of oxygen used by micro-organisms
to oxidize the organic matter in sewage is
Answer
C. Od)
86
In constructed wetlands used for waste water treatment, which type of aquatic
plants can maintain the root zone in an anaerobic state ?
Answer
B. Emergent plants
87
2-chloro-6-(trichloromethyl) pyridine (nitrapyrin) is added during the BOd test of
treated effluent water to inhibit
Answer
C. Nitrogen Oxygen demand (NOd)
88
Colilert (minimal media ONPG-mUG Test) is a direct test for microbiological water
quality analysis which can be used to
Answer
A. determine both total coliforms and E. coli within 24 hours
89
Which of the following is not a coliform ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
90
A major health concern in water disinfection is the formation of carcinogenic
trihalomethanes, and this is associated with which method of water disinfection ?
Answer
D. Chlorination
91
Which term describes the inability of micro-organisms to degrade xenobiotic
chemical compounds ?
Answer
B. Recalcitrance
92
The approach of biodegradation by adding easily metabolized organic matter
along the compound to be degraded is known as
Answer
C. Cometabolism
93
Many filamentous cyanobacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen by means of special
cells called
Answer
A. Heterocysts
94
Which of the following establishes symbiotic associations with leguminous plants
to fix nitrogen ?
Answer
B. Rhizobium
95
What is biogeochemical cycling ?
Answer
A. The cycling of chemical elements and compounds involving biological and
chemical processes
96
Anammox is the
Answer
A. Anaerobic oxidation of ammonium to gaseous nitrogen
97
“Superbug” which have increased capability of hydrocarbon degradation was
patented by
Answer
B. Anand mohan Chakarabarty
98
Which of the following is a photosynthetic bacterium ?
Answer
C. Chlorobium
99
Which among the following is not a fungal bio pesticide ?
Answer
C. Bacillus thuringiensis
100
Which of the following is not true regarding composting ?
Answer
D. Methane is the major end product of compositing
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