| Post Name | Scientific Assistant - Ayurveda Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 079/2023/OL |
| Category Code | 072/2022, 004/2023 |
| Date of Test | 12 June 2023 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which theory assumes that the substrate plays a role in determining the final shape of the enzyme?
Answer
C. Induced fit theory
2
Paper chromatography is an example of _________ chromatography.
Answer
B. Liquid-Liquid
3
To perform t-test which of the following softwares can be utilized. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 1. MS-Excel 2. Unix 3. SPSS 4. MS Equations
Answer
C. (1) and (3) only
4
The F-test is used __________.
Answer
B. For testing of significance
5
Which of the following titrations will have the equivalence point at a pH more than 8?
Answer
A. and
6
Among the following, which is not a prodrug?
Answer
D. Propranolol
7
A scatter diagram represent the relationship between ________ and _______.
Answer
A. Cause, effects
8
In case of HPLC mobile phase is
Answer
C. Organic solvent
9
The speed of migration of ions in electric field depends upon
Answer
B. Magnitude of charge and shape of molecule
10
0.63 g of oxalic acid is added to 100 ml 0.1 N KOH solution. The resulting solution will be
Answer
A. Neutral
11
Which of the following is not true about High Pressure Liquid Chromatography (HPLC)?
Answer
B. There is no need to vaporise the samples
12
Indeterminate error is also called
Answer
C. Both (1) and (2)
13
Analgin is a
Answer
D. Pyrazole derivative
14
What does correlation coefficient measure?
Answer
B. The strength and the direction of linear relationship between two variables
15
A concentration term which does not change with increase or decrease of temperature is
Answer
A. Molality
16
Which sentence is false about EDTA?
Answer
C. Alkali medium is required for complex ion as EDTA will ionizes more in acidic medium.
17
In centrifugation, which of the following force is not used?
Answer
A. Electrostatic force
18
Which of the following will improve the efficiency of separating process in liquid chromatography?
Answer
D. Decrease in sample size and decrease in column diameter
19
Which of the following is not a column type liquid chromatography?
Answer
B. Paper
20
Which of the following is not a type of detector used in gas chromatography?
Answer
D. UV visible spectrometric detector
21
Which of the following error is caused by poor calibration of the instrument?
Answer
C. Systematic error
22
Which of the following is an anti histamine drug?
Answer
A. Chlorpheniramine maleate
23
Antiseptic chloroxylenol is
Answer
D. 4-Chloro-3, 5 dimethly phenol
24
________ is a receptor blocker.
Answer
A. Ranitidine
25
NSAID is class of which of the following drugs?
Answer
B. Acetaminophen
26
__________ is not a sulphonamide drug.
Answer
C. Rofecoxib
27
Dopamine is biosynthesized from?
Answer
B. L-Tyrosine
28
Which of the following techniques is an analysis of the relationship between two variables to help provide the prediction mechanism?
Answer
C. Regression
29
β1-receptors are located in?
Answer
B. Lungs
30
Chloramphenicol is obtained from
Answer
B. Streptomyces venezulae
31
Select the spectroscopic method which enable accurate determination of ionization energies of atoms
Answer
D. Photoelectron Spectroscopy
32
Pick out the underlying principle of AAS
Answer
A. The absorption of resonance wavelength by the ground state metal atoms present in a flame
33
Which of the following statement is/are incorrect about hollow cathode lamp? (i) It is the resonance line source in AAS. (ii) It has an emitting anode made of the element being studied. (iii) It has an emitting cathode made of the element being studied. (iv) The anode is in the form of a cylinder.
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iv)
34
The photoelectron spectrum of argon is generated by using a helium source of energy 21.22 eV. What will be the binding energy of argon if its kinetic energy is 5.4 eV?
Answer
C. 15.82 eV
35
In X-ray photoelectron spectroscopy, irradiation of atoms by X-rays leads to:
Answer
B. Ejection of the core electrons
36
Which of the following is not a background correction method in AAS?
Answer
B. Stark effect method
37
Pick out most appropriate statements regarding ICP - AES (i) Produces lesser number of excited atoms compared to Flame Emission Spectroscopy (ii) Self-absorption is practically absent compared to Flame Emission Spectroscopy (iii) Inductively Coupled Plasma (ICP) generally has inferior detection limits to Direct Current Plasma (DCP). (iv) Suitable for simultaneous multi-elemental determination
Answer
D. Only (ii) and (iv)
38
Flame temperature greater than 2000 K is an essential requirement of flame spectroscopy. Which among the following fuels produce highest flame temperature?
Answer
C. Acetylene + Nitrous oxide
39
Fluorescence spectrum usually consists of only one band with many closely spaced lines that corresponds to transition from lowest vibrational levels of to different vibrational levels of . This is because
Answer
B. Internal conversion and vibrational relaxation process are very fast compared to fluorescence.
40
Molecular fluorescence band mostly consists of lines that are lower in energy than the band of absorbed radiation. This is termed as
Answer
C. Stokes shifted fluorescence
41
In Scanning Electron Microscopy (SEM), the signals are generated from (i) Back scattered electrons (ii) Absorbed electrons (iii) Transmitted electrons (iv) Secondary electrons
Answer
D. Only (i) and (iv)
42
Energy Dispersive X-ray Spectroscopy is used to find out the elemental composition of a specimen by probing characteristic X-rays. The EDX spectrum is a plot of
Answer
A. Emitted X-ray intensity against its energy
43
Which of the following is a scanning probe characterization method?
Answer
C. Atomic Force Microscopy
44
Selected area electron diffraction (SAED) is a crystallographic experimental method, which is associated with
Answer
D. TEM
45
In the X-ray diffraction pattern of body-centered cubic lattice
Answer
B. Diffraction lines for which is an odd integer are absent
46
Noble metal nanoparticles are generally characterized by localized surface plasmon resonance (LSPR). Which of the following spectroscopic method is useful to detect various factors that affect the LSPR?
Answer
D. UV-Visible absorbance spectroscopy
47
Which of the following statement is incorrect about scanning tunneling microscopy (STM)?
Answer
D. The tunneling current is independent on the distance from the probe to surface
48
Pick out the selection rules that govern hyperfine transition in ESR spectra
Answer
C. Δ and Δ
49
Assuming as isotropic system, the hyper fine ESR spectrum of an aqueous solution of consists of a
Answer
D. Quartet
50
DPPH (α, α' - diphenyl picryl hydrazil radical) can be used for calibrating the ESR spectra. The ESR spectrum of DPPH consists of
Answer
B. quintet with intensity ratio 1:2:3:2:1
51
Thermomechanical Analysis can be used for the determination (I) Viscoelastic properties (II) Glass transition temperature (III) Phase transformation
Answer
C. All of the above
52
Match the compound with the correct fragmentation peak m/z = 108 (molecular ion), 107, 79, 77, 51
Answer
B. Benzyl alcohol
53
The function of which enzyme is inhibited by cyanide poisoning
Answer
B. Cytochrome oxidase
54
Which of the following is true about LD 50? (I) It is the amount of a material, given all at once, which causes the death of 50% (one half) of a group of test animals. (II) It is the amount of chemical administered (e.g., milligrams) per 100 grams (for smaller animals) or per kilogram (for bigger test subjects) of the body weight of the test animal which proves to be fatal.
Answer
D. Both (I) and (II)
55
The tension probe used in thermo-mechanical analysis is made of
Answer
A. Glass
56
How many peaks is expected for 1, 2 dichloropropane in ?
Answer
B. 4
57
An example of a low energy pure Beta emitter
Answer
A. C-14
58
Which of the following shows highest stretching frequencies in IR for exocyclic olefinic double bond?
Answer
D. methylene cyclopropane
59
In organophosphate toxicity which of the following statements are correct (I) Antidote is intravenous injection of atropine (II) IF RBC cholinesterase level is more than 50% of normal, it indicates organophosphate toxicity
Answer
A. Only (I)
60
o-nitroacetanilide or p-nitroacetanilide which shows absorption at longer wavelength and why?
Answer
A. o-nitroacetanilide due to intramolecular H-bonding
61
In a particular Neutron Activation Analysis two aliquots containing 3 ml river water were taken. To one, 1 ml of standard solution containing 1 μg of was added and to other, 1 ml of deionized water was added. Both were subjected to homogenous neutron flux. On counting the γ radiation from the counting rate of first aliquot was 4000 cpm and second was 1000 cpm. Calculate the weight of Al in the 3ml sample of river water.
Answer
D. 0.33 μg
62
Coding regions of a gene are called
Answer
C. Introns
63
Calculate the chemical shift in ppm for a proton in a 120 MHz instrument if it shows resonance at 300 Hz in 60 MHz.
Answer
C. 5 ppm
64
Which of the following is a step not involved in DNA finger printing?
Answer
B. DNA transcription
65
Sensitivity of Neutron Activation Analysis depends on (I) Neutron activation cross section (II) Isotope abundance (III) Neutron flux (IV) Counter efficiency
Answer
B. I, II, III
66
The modulus in the Plateau region in DMA analysis of a polymer sample
Answer
D. depends on both crystallinity and crosslinking
67
Identify the correct number of peaks for ortho, meta and para dichlorobenzene in
Answer
B. 3, 4, 2
68
which of the following statements regarding Arsenic is false?
Answer
A. Pentavalent Arsenic is more toxic than trivalent Arsenic
69
Pencillin in a mixture was determined by adding 0.2 mg of having a specific activity of cpm/mg. After equilibration 0.1 mg of pure penicillin was obtained. The material had an activity of 343 cpm. Calculate the milligrams of penicillin in the sample.
Answer
C. 0.2 mg
70
In DEPT Subspectra, DEPT-90, how many peaks are obtained for isopentylacetate
Answer
C. 1
71
Estimation of chromium in samples uses which of the reagent and method
Answer
D. Diphenyl carbazide in UV-V is Spectroscopy
72
(I) Assertion : Neutron probes help in better management of land in agriculture. (II) Reason : It measure soil moisture accurately
Answer
A. Assertion is true and II is the correct reason
73
Which of the following statements about Anabolic Steroids is wrong?
Answer
C. Anabolic steroids are corticosteroids
74
Which of the following shows peak at m/z = 58 due to Mc Lafferty Rearrangement?
Answer
A. 2-pentanone
75
The half-life of Ra-226 is 1600 years. Calculate the time for its decomposition into 6.25% of initial amount?
Answer
B. 6400 years
76
Which of the following statements is wrong?
Answer
C. Intensity of the peaks is related to number of bonds connecting the protons
77
In forensic analysis the species origin of blood is determined by (I) Precipitin tube method (II) Double disc diffusion method (III) Crossover Electrophoresis
Answer
D. All of above
78
(I) Assertion : Deborah Number is used in Dynamic Mechanical Analysis to determine viscoelastic behaviour of a polymer. (II) Reason : It determines the relaxation time of the polymer.
Answer
A. Assertion I is correct and II is the correct reason
79
Total number of vibrational modes for
Answer
C. 4
80
Which of the following is a phytotoxin found in castor seed?
Answer
C. Ricin
81
When 1 mol CoCl₃·5NH₃ is treated with excess AgNO₃, 2 mol AgCl are obtained. The formula of the complex is
Answer
B. [CoCl(NH₃)₅]²⁺ 2Cl⁻
82
For the reaction, , where M is a first transition element, if the lattice energy is plotted against atomic number, the shape of the graph will be
Answer
C. Double humped curve
83
A normal spinel structure will be formed if
Answer
A. ion has higher CFSE in an octahedral field compared to ion
84
Which of the following species not expected to be a ligand?
Answer
C. NH₄⁺
85
Select the diamagnetic species
Answer
D. None of the above
86
The magnetic moment of is
Answer
B. 4.9 BM
87
The high spin-low spin crossover point in Tanabe-Sugano diagram occur for a system at
Answer
A. 2.7 Dq/B
88
The purple colour of ion is due to
Answer
B. ligand to metal charge transfer
89
The crystal field stabilization energy of low spin configuration will be
Answer
Question Cancelled
90
Which of the following configuration shows Jahn-Tellar distortion in an octahedral field?
Answer
A. high spin
91
Physisorption is favoured by
Answer
D. All the above
92
Which of the following process will not occur at the interface of phases?
Answer
A. homogeneous catalysis
93
The half-life of the first order homogeneous reaction , is 10 minutes. How long will it take for the concentration of the reactant to be reduced to 1% of the initial value?
Answer
C. 66.46 minutes
94
The surface tension of dilute solution of a solute varies linearly with the solute concentration c as , where is the surface tension of the solvent and is a constant. The expression for surface excess is
Answer
B. /RT
95
In the acid hydrolysis reaction, Products, where, mol dm and is present in large excess, the pseudo first order rate constant is . The true rate constant will be
Answer
B. 9 × 10⁻⁷ dm⁶ mol⁻² s⁻¹
96
In the base catalysed hydrolysis of ethyl acetate, a plot of logarithm of rate constant versus square root of ionic strength of the solution will be
Answer
A. linear and parallel to x axis
97
Which of the following statements is not true for a catalyst?
Answer
C. It alters ΔG of the reaction
98
The volume of nitrogen gas at 1 atm. and 273 K required to cover the surface of an adsorbent as monolayer is 0.1 / of the adsorbent. If each nitrogen molecule occupies , the surface area of the adsorbent is
Answer
D. 268
99
The half life of a reaction is doubled as the initial concentration of the reactant is doubled. The order of the reaction will be
Answer
A. zero order
100
Low energy electron diffraction (LEED) is a technique employed for studying
Answer
B. atomic geometry of a surface
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