| Post Name | Scientific Assistant (Biochemistry) - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 107/2023/OL |
| Category Code | 003/2022 |
| Date of Test | 11 July 2023 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The molecular biology technique where RNA is converted to cDNA and then ampliļ¬ed is
Answer
A. RT-PCR
2
Nucleic acid probes can be used for
Answer
D. All of the above
3
In SDS-PAGE
Answer
B. The stacking gel has larger pore size than separating gel
4
The concept of real time PCR came because
Answer
D. Taq polymerase has 5' to 3' exonuclease activity
5
In HPLC the resulting bands in the chromatogram are measured by
Answer
B. Mass spectrometer
6
In a chromatographic instrument selective separation of a mixture occurs in
Answer
C. Column
7
Drug of abuse can be measured by
Answer
B. Gas/liquid chromatography
8
Mass spectrometer identiļ¬es analytes based on
Answer
A. Mass: charge ratio
9
In atomic absorption spectroscopy with what material is the cathode in hallow cathode lamp made?
Answer
C. Element to be analysed
10
Prussian Blue stain is used for staining which of the following metals?
Answer
A. Iron
11
The Phenomenon by which an organic compound becomes excited when oxidised and emit light when it returns to ground state is
Answer
D. Luminescence
12
Regarding ļ¬uorometry which among these is true
Answer
D. All of the above
13
The most sensitive detector in spectrophotometry is
Answer
D. Photodiode array
14
Which of the following is true about Haemotoxylin and Eosin staining?
Answer
A. Hematoxylin is a basic dye and binds to nucleic acids in the nucleus and imparts a blue color
15
What is the ideal section thickness for preparing routine H and E stained sections?
Answer
D. 3-5 microns
16
Which among the following is true about reverse phase liquid chromatography/
Answer
B. Polar mobile and non-polar stationary phase
17
What do you mean by bright ļ¬eld microscope?
Answer
C. The microscope is lit from below and viewed from above
18
The magnifying power of an eye piece in microscope is
Answer
A. 10X
19
Which among the following types of microscope does not require staining to view the slide?
Answer
B. Phase contrast microscope
20
Which among the following represents the correct stages of tissue processing?
Answer
A. Fixation-dehydration-clearing-inļ¬ltration-embedding
21
All are true regarding active site of an enzyme except
Answer
D. Active sites are noted in clefts and crevices in the protein which exclude bulk solvent and reduces the catalytic activity of the enzyme
22
Select the statement that is correct.
Answer
D. The presence of an enzyme has no eļ¬ect on ĪGĀ°
23
Turn over number
Answer
A. Has units of 1/time
24
All are enzymes used as therapeutic agents except
Answer
B. Papain
25
All statements regarding isoenzymes are correct except
Answer
B. Same forms with similar physical properties
26
All are regarding the Michaelis constant except
Answer
C. At high concentration of substrate ,the velocity of the reaction is proportional to the substrate concentration and the rate of the reaction is said to be ļ¬rst order
27
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about allosteric regulation? (i) Allosteric eļ¬ectors can change either the or the of the reaction or the of the reaction (ii) Homotropic interactions are always positive (iii) Most allosteric enzymes bind the allosteric eļ¬ector with no eļ¬ect on binding other ligands
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
28
All are used as immobilized enzymes except
Answer
Question Cancelled
29
Which of the following statements is/are correct? (i) The protein part of the enzyme is the prosthetic group (ii) The prosthetic group of the enzyme is called the co enzyme (iii) Co enzyme is a low molecular weight organic substance
Answer
B. (ii) and (iii)
30
An example of a lyase is
Answer
D. Aldolase
31
All are true regarding enzyme inhibition except
Answer
C. Transition State analogues are molecules that bind to an enzyme tightly at a site distinct from the active site
32
Which of the following statement(s) about immunochemical methods of isoenzyme analysis is/are correct? (i) Are particularly applicable to isoenzymes derived from multiple gene loci (ii) The greater discriminating power of monoclonal antibodies has potentially brought all multiple forms of an enzyme within the scope of immuno chemical analysis (iii) The most common routine methods to measure isoenzymes or isoforms are now based on immunochemical assays
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii, iii)
33
Lineweaver-Burk plot is derived from
Answer
A. Reciprocal of substrate concentration against reciprocal of velocity
34
Example of enzyme induction is
Answer
B. Tryptophan pyrrolase by glucocorticoids
35
An enzyme which undergo covalent modiļ¬cation by acetylation is
Answer
C. Long chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase
36
The pattern of appearance of an enzyme in blood after an acute injury depends on
Answer
D. All of the above
37
Testing of AST in addition to ALT should be limited because
Answer
D. All of the above
38
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding pancreatic enzymes in acute pancreatitis? (i) Lipase measurement is superior to pancreatic amylase in terms of Diagnostic performance (ii) It is recommeded that lipase replace pancreatic amylase as initial test for acute pancreatitis (iii) The measurement of total amylase is recommended
Answer
A. i and ii only
39
True statement regarding unit of enzyme activity
Answer
Question Cancelled
40
All are examples of riboenzymes except
Answer
C. Transposase
41
Which of the following is FALSE regarding EDTA contamination of blood sample?
Answer
B. Increased magnesium
42
All the following statements are TRUE regarding control materials EXCEPT
Answer
C. Should have a non-protein matrix when serum is the test material to be analyzed
43
A gaussian curve is usually
Answer
C. Bell shaped
44
Choose the INCORRECT statement regarding quality assessment in a health care laboratory
Answer
B. It emphasizes on statistical quality control procedures
45
Systematic errors in lab. analytic processes can occur due to all the following EXCEPT
Answer
C. Lack of reproducibility in the pipetting of samples and reagents
46
Quality control measures are used to minimize
Answer
B. Analytical errors
47
All the following are measures of central tendencies EXCEPT
Answer
C. Range
48
Westgard rule where control values are lying on one side of the mean should likely correspond with all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Rās
49
Levy Jennings chart is used for
Answer
B. Validation of laboratory reports generated from the automated clinical chemistry analyzer
50
POCT devices are all except
Answer
C. Automated clinical chemistry autoanalyzer
51
Which of the following DO NOT come under OSHA law and standards?
Answer
A. OSHA inspectors have no authority to enter a clinical laboratory unannounced and inspect it
52
GLP certiļ¬cate for laboratories in India is granted by
Answer
C. NGCMA
53
All of the following are TRUE about External Quality Control (EQC) except
Answer
B. It is an intralaboratory comparison
54
Quality assurance scheme is necessary for
Answer
D. All of the above
55
Choose the correct statement
Answer
C. Preanalytical errors are commoner than post analytical errors
56
The ļ¬rst enzyme to appear in the blood after a heart attack is
Answer
C. Creatine Phospho Kinase
57
"Cardiomegalia glycogenica" is a characteristic of which of the following Glycogen Storage Diseases (GSDs)
Answer
B. Type II GSD
58
Regulation of the electrolyte content of the body ļ¬uids is done by
Answer
B. Kidney
59
In humans, the renal threshold for glucose per 100 ml of blood is
Answer
C. 180 mg
60
The phenomena of "Insulin resistance" is characteristic of
Answer
B. Type II Diabetes Mellitus
61
Jaundice (Icterus) occurs due to
Answer
D. Overproduction or failed excretion of bilirubin
62
"Inulin Clearance Test" is used to estimate
Answer
C. Glomerular Filtration Rate
63
In HbA1C test for determining the severity of Diabetes, the glucose binds predominantly to which to amino acid of hemoglobin?
Answer
A. -Val-1, -Lys-66, -Lys-61
64
Lactate Dehydrogenase 5 (LDH-5 or M4) elevation in blood is indicative of
Answer
D. Liver Cirrhosis
65
Assertion A: A bone marrow aspirate of a strictly vegetarian female, conļ¬rms the suspicion that she has a megaloblastic anemia because it showed a greater than normal number of red and white blood cell precursors, most of which were larger than normal. Reason R: Megaloblastic anemia mostly occurs due to Vitamin B12 deļ¬ciency also called as Cobalamin In the light of the above statements, Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
66
Assertion A: In a 30 year-old man fasting for several days, his brain reduces its need for glucose by using an alternate source of energy. Reason R: Beta hydroxy butyrate is used as an alternate source of energy due to ketoacidosis. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
67
Statement I : During acute Myocardial Infarction, the test of Cardiac troponins, Serum myoglobin and Creatine Phospho kinase-MB (CPK-MB) can give the conclusive diagnosis. Statement II : During acute Myocardial Infarction, the test of Blood pressure, Lactate dehydrogenase and Choline esterase can give the conclusive diagnosis. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Answer
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
68
Identify correct statements about Glycogen and its storage disorders 1. Glycogen is the major storage carbohydrate of animals and a branched polymer of Ī±-D-Glucose 2. it occurs mainly in liver (upto 6%) and muscle where it rarely exceeds 1% of its weight 3. liver glycogen is the readily available source of glucose for glycolysis. 4. liver contains 3 to 4 times as much glycogen as does muscle 5. Glycogen Storage Diseases (GSDs) are inherited disorders with abnormal deposition and deļ¬cient mobilization of gycogen. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer
B. 1, 2 and 5 only
69
In Jaundice (Icterus) excessive bilirubin catabolism and clearance occurs in the following sequence 1. bilirubin formed in peripheral tissues is transported to the liver by plasma albumin 2. bilirubin is conjugated with glucoronic acid by Bilirubin-UGT activity 3. Uptake of bilirubin by liver parenchymal cells through facilitated transport system 4. Secretion of conjugated Bilirubin into Bile by an active transport mechanism 5. Bilirubin is derived from hemoglobin destruction, ineļ¬ective erythropoiesis and from other heme proteins like cytochrome P450 choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer
A. 5, 1, 3, 2, 4
70
Insulin is released into the blood stream in response to hyperglycemia 1. ATP sensitive channels are inhibited causing membrane depolarization 2. There is inļ¬ux of ions within the Ī² cells 3. There is exocytosis of insulin into the blood 4. The Ī² cells of the Islets of Langerhans are freely permeable to glucose via. GLUT-2 receptors 5. Glucose increases the metabolic ļ¬ux and increases ATP production in the Ī² cells Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer
A. 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
71
Ketosis that occurs in diabetic patients involve
Answer
C. Overproduction of Acetoacetate and Ī²-hydroxybutyrate
72
Assertion A : Citrate anticoagulants have an important advantage over the oxalate anticoagulants Reason R : Oxalate is toxic to the body, whereas moderate quantities of citrate can be injected intravenously.
Answer
B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
73
Identify correct statements about blood clotting and anticoagulants : 1. The anticoagulant of choice for blood cell counts is EDTA 2. The anticoagulant suitable for storing blood for transfusion is dextrose, phosphate and citrate 3. Anticoagulants are also called as Vasodilators 4. In an anticoagulated specimen, the liquid part separated out from the blood is called as serum 5. Heparin inhibits the conversatino of prothrombin to thrombin. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer
C. 1, 2 and 5 only
74
The functions of the synovial ļ¬uid includes all of the following except
Answer
B. Removal of cartilage debris
75
Reverse Cholesterol Transport primarily involves
Answer
D. High Density Lipoproteins (HDLs)
76
Choose the hormones which are nonapeptides
Answer
A. Oxytocin and Antidiuretic hormone
77
Find out the incorrect match : (Hormone ā Signalling Pathway)
Answer
C. Prolactin ā Tyrosine protein kinase
78
Which is the hormone that require parenchymal cells of more than one organ for its synthesis?
Answer
A. Calcitriol
79
All the following hormones with common alpha sub units but with diļ¬erent beta subunit, except
Answer
D. Thyrotropin releasing hormone
80
The substrate of aromatase enzyme complex
Answer
C. Testosterone and androstenedione
81
All the following hormones are synthesized from Tyrosine, except
Answer
A. Thyroid stimulating hormone
82
Acute decrease in the level of plasma ionized calcium stimulates the synthesis and secretion of
Answer
B. Parathyroid hormone
83
Antiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are used to treat renin dependent hypertension because
Answer
A. Inhibition of ACE block the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotension II
84
Tyrosyl residues in thyroglobulin are iodinated to form thyroid hormones but iodinated free tyrosine cannot be incorporated into thyroglobulin to form thyroid hormones : Why?
Answer
A. There are no tRNA in the body which recognizes iodinated tyrosine
85
The hormone that is not produced from a larger peptide precursor
Answer
C. Epinephrine
86
Choose the correct matching sequence related to hormone action : (Hormone Hormone action via)
Answer
B. Insulin ā Activation of tyrosine kinase activity
87
Diļ¬erent hormones and their urinary metabolites, useful to diagnose related disorders are given below. Find out the mismatch
Answer
B. Dopamine ā Vanillylmandelic acid ā Meningioma
88
The following are hormones of adipose tissue, except
Answer
A. Ghrelin
89
False statement related to incretins
Answer
D. enhance the release of glycagon from alpha cells of pancreas
90
The rise in eļ¬ective plasma osmolality stimulate the production and release of
Answer
A. Antidiuretic hormone
91
Find out the incorrect match
Answer
D. Activation of Nortriptiline - CYP2D6
92
Proteins used in therapy like insulin are produced by
Answer
B. Recombinant DNA technology
93
Organic cation transporter OCT1 (SLC22A1) facilitates the movement across membrane of
Answer
A. Metformin
94
The route of administration that reduce bioavailability by ļ¬rst pass eļ¬ect
Answer
D. Oral administration
95
Drug eļ¬ects that occur not by means of macromolecular receptors
Answer
A. Mannitol
96
True about median eļ¬ective dose (
Answer
A. The dose of a drug required to produce a speciļ¬ed eļ¬ect in 50% of the population
97
Idiosyncratic reactions indicate
Answer
D. all the above
98
Choose the mismatch related to allergic reactions
Answer
B. Type III Arthus Reactions - mediated by sensitized T lymphocytes and macrophages
99
An example of genotoxic carcinogen
Answer
A. Benzo[a]pyrene, in tobacco smoke
100
Erethism is due to
Answer
A. Chronic mercury vapor inhalation
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