| Post Name | SCIENTIFIC ASSISTANT (PATHOLOGY) (Medical Education Department) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 113/2025 |
| Category Code | 279/2024 |
| Date of Test | 12 September 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Polymorphism is a characteristic feature of which of the following phyla?
Answer
A. Cnidaria
2
Placoderms are significant in vertebrate phylogeny because they are :
Answer
B. Early jawed vertebrates
3
Prototheria includes which of the following animals?
Answer
C. Platypus
4
The Hardy-Weinberg principle helps to predict :
Answer
B. Stability of allele frequencies in large populations
5
The “founder effect” describes a situation in which :
Answer
B. A small group establishes a new population with limited genetic variation
6
Which unit measures the dose of ionizing radiation absorbed by tissue?
Answer
B. Sievert
7
Which technique is used to separate and analyse DNA, RNA, or protein?
Answer
D. Gel electrophoresis
3 A
8
In liquid scintillation counting, scintillation is caused by :
Answer
A. Interaction of radiation with light-sensitive chemicals
9
Which among the following has heterocrine function?
Answer
C. Pancreas and Gonads
10
Choose which among the following statement is correct relating to hormonal regulation
of male reproductive functions:
(i) Testosterone levels are regulated by negative feedback of FSH alone.
(ii) LH stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone which in turn supports
spermatogenesis.
(iii) FSH and testosterone are together necessary to maintain Sertoli cell function and
spermatid maturation.
(iv) Estrogens are merely female hormones and do not have any role in male
reproductive physiology.
Answer
C. (ii) and (iii)
11
Sometimes after doing physical work we get muscle cramps. This results due to :
Answer
C. conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid
12
Which respiratory principle is INCORRECT?
Answer
D. The chloride shift is “the diffusion of HCO3 – in to the cell, with the outward
diffusion of Cl– ions to maintain electrical neutrality”
113/2025 4 A
13
People living at high altitudes have increased levels of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
Answer
C. Bind to hemoglobin and increase the amount of oxygen available to the tissue
14
Calculate the expiratory reserve volume from the following data : Tidal
volume = 525 mL, Inspiratory reserve volume = 3175 mL, Forced Vital capacity = 4975.
Answer
A. 1275 mL
15
In which test tube would protein digestion occur at the highest rate?
Answer
D. Tube containing HCl and pepsinogen
16
Which of the following statement regarding counter current mechanism is correct?
(i) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop actively transports Nacl into the medullary
interstitium.
(ii) Descending limb of vasa recta transports Nacl into renal medulla.
(iii) Counter current mechanism increases the osmolarity of the medullary
interstitium, facilitating water reabsorption from collecting duct.
(iv) The thin segment of the ascending limb of Henle’s loop allows the passage of urea
into the medullar interstitium.
Answer
Question Cancelled
17
Broca’s area is located in :
Answer
A. the frontal lobe
18
Lymphatic capillaries resemble blood capillaries because lymphatic capillaries :
Answer
C. have a lining of endothelium
19
Which of the following is not a symptom of Parkinson’s disease?
Answer
A. early memory loss
20
An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals no P waves. This would indicate that impulses from
which one of the following structures are being blocked?
Answer
A. Sinoatrial (SA) node
21
Identify the correctly matched pair from the list given below:
A B
(i) Disruption of GATA -2 gene – Death of the animal in the
embryonic stage
(ii) Transcription factor, Ikaros – Essential for erythropoiesis
(iii) Absence of Transcription factor GATA-1 – Haematopoietic cells will not
differentiate into erythroid
progenitor
(iv) An Oct-2 knock out mice – Absence of plasma cells due to
the failure of differentiation of
B cells
Answer
D. All except (ii) are correct
22
Assertion
Answer
D. The assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct
113/2025 6 A
23
Read the statements given below and select the correct option :
(i) Chagas disease is primarily transmitted by the bite of an infected “kissing bug”.
(ii) Trypanosoma cruzi causes a significant reduction in the expression of the 55-kDa α
subunit of the IL-2 receptor in T cells.
(iii) The α subunit of the IL-2 receptor is specific for cytokine binding.
(iv) The reduction in the expression of α subunit of IL2 receptor of T cell can occur only
with the direct contact between T. cruzi and lymphocytes.
(v) Anti-CD3 monoclonal antibodies typically activate peripheral T cells, but in the
presence of Trypanosoma cruzi this activation is inhibited.
Answer
B. All except (iv) are true
24
Match the following :
(i) Membrane attack complex (MAC) (1) Can cause Auto antibody
mediated thrombopenia
(ii) Rheumatic fever (2) Haemolytic anaemia due to the
production of auto immune
antibody against RBC
(iii) Goodpasture’s syndrome (3) Antibodies against group
A streptococci cross-react with
Cardiac tissue
(iv) Phenacetine (4) A protein complex formed by
complement proteins that can
lyse cells.
(v) Quinine (5) Autoimmune antibodies
produced attacks the basement
membrane of kidneys and lungs.
Answer
A. (i)-(4), (ii)-(3), (iii)-(5), (iv)-(2), (v)-(1)
25
Which of the following is an attenuated whole organism vaccine?
Answer
C. BCG vaccine
26
Which of the following statements about haptens is/are true?
(i) A hapten can bind to the antigen receptor of CD4 + T cells without being processed
by macrophages.
(ii) A hapten is the antigen-binding site in the hypervariable region of IgG.
(iii) Haptens are antigenic but not immunogenic.
(iv) Haptens are neither antigenic nor immunogenic by themselves.
(v) Hapten alone can bind to the IgM receptor on the
Answer
A. (iii) and (v) only
27
Choose the correct options to fill the blanks :
IgG, the most abundant class in serum, constitutes about 80% of the total serum
immunoglobulin. There are four human IgG subclasses, distinguished by differences in
(i) ______________ chain sequence. (ii) ______________ is the most effect complement
activator while (iii) ______________ cannot activate complement at all. All Ig G subclass
except (iv) ______________ can cross placenta and protect the developing foetus.
(1) γ, (2) α, (3) IgG1, (4) IgG2, (5) IgG3, (6) IgG4
Answer
C. (i)-(1), (ii)-(5), (iii)-(6), (iv)-(4)
28
Which of the following statements is correct?
Answer
B. The alternative pathway does not require antibody for activation
29
Read the statements and pick out most suitable one from the options given below :
Statement I. IgM can bind antigens more effectively than IgG in certain situations.
Statement II. Affinity of IgM towards antigens is greater than IgG
Statement III. Avidity of IgM is greater than IgG
Answer
D. Only the statements I and III are correct and III justifies I
30
Match the following and select most appropriate option:
Type of Hypersensitivity Characteristics
(i) Type I (1) T cell-mediated, delayed-type hypersensitivity
(ii) Type II (2) Immune complex-mediated disease
(iii) Type III (3) Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
Answer
A. DCC)
(iv) Type IV (4) IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity
(5) NK cell mediated and delayed type
hypersensitivity
31
What are the major disadvantages of serum in culture media among the following?
(i) Variable composition
(ii) It does not provide trace elements and nutrients.
(iii) It may be a source of contamination.
(iv) Lack of growth promoters.
Answer
B. (i) and (iii) only
32
Which of the following statements accurately describes the mechanism of
electroporation?
Answer
C. Electroporation involves the use of electric pulses to create temporary pores
in the cell membrane, allowing DNA to enter
33
Which among the following forms the world’s first DNA covid vaccine approved for
human use which received emergency use authorization in India in August 2021?
Answer
C. ZyCoV-D
34
What role do monoclonal antibodies play in immunotherapy for cancer?
(i) Immune Checkpoint Inhibition
(ii) Activating immune cells
(iii) Targeted killing
(iv) Blocking Growth Signals
Answer
D. All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
35
Select incorrect statements regarding the process of cryopreservation :
Answer
C. Vitrification makes no significant improvement in cryopreservation of oocytes
36
The primary mechanism of CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing is:
Answer
B. Double-stranded DNA breaks and repair
37
The primary application of Terminator Gene Technology in agriculture is :
(i) To protect intellectual property right
(ii) Seed sterility
(iii) Enhance crop yield
(iv) Pest Control
Answer
A. (i) and (ii)
38
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of pluripotent stem cells?
Answer
B. They can differentiate into all cell types of the body but not extra-embryonic
tissues
39
Which of the following statements best defines genomic equivalence?
Answer
C. All somatic cells possess identical genomes, regardless of their developmental
fate
40
Select the statements which accurately describe mechanisms by which cytoplasmic
determinants influence cell fate and gene expression during embryonic development :
(i) By regulating mRNA stability and localization cytoplasmic determinants influence
gene expression in the developing embryo.
(ii) Cytoplasmic determinants establish localized regions within the embryo that
influence how cells respond to morphogen gradients.
(iii) Cytoplasmic determinants are partitioned asymmetrically during cell division,
leading to differences in cell fate between the daughter cells.
Answer
D. All of the above
41
What is the primary function of genomic imprinting in mammals?
Answer
A. Regulation of gene expression during embryogenesis.
42
Which of the following statements is true about cell differentiation?
(i) The process of differentiation is typically irreversible.
(ii) It involves changes in gene expression without altering the DNA sequence.
(iii) All cells retain totipotency throughout development
(iv) It is determined solely by external signals.
Answer
A. (i) and (ii) only
43
Select the roles of organizer in embryonic induction :
(i) Axis Formation
(ii) Promote neural induction
(iii) Organize the formation of extra embryonic tissues
(iv) Regulation of Cell Fate
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iv)
44
Morphogenetic gradients play a crucial role in:
Answer
D. All the above
45
What is the function of the zonapellucida in mammalian fertilization?
(i) It provides nutrients to the sperm.
(ii) It facilitates the transport of sperm through the female reproductive tract.
(iii) Prevention of polyspermy
(iv) Sperm binding and induction of acrosome reaction.
Answer
C. (iii) and (iv)
46
What is the significance of the cleavage pattern in determining the developmental fate of
the embryo?
Answer
B. It influences the distribution of cytoplasmic determinants and affects gene
expression
47
A patient presents with features of Turner syndrome, which is characterized by the
absence of one X chromosome. What is the typical karyotype associated with this
condition?
Answer
C. 45, X
48
In a pedigree chart, a trait appears in every generation and both males and females are
equally affected. What type of inheritance is most likely represented?
Answer
A. Autosomal dominant
49
What is the mechanism by which microRNAs regulate gene expression, as discovered by
Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun (2024 Nobel Prize)?
Answer
B. By degrading mRNA or blocking its translation
50
Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which Naegleria fowleri causes
primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM)?
Answer
C. The amoeba enters through the nose and migrates along the olfactory nerve
to the brain
51
Which of the following molecules is not linear?
Answer
A. SnCl2
52
BCl3 on reduction with LiAlH4 gives:
Answer
B. B2H6
53
Which of the following statements is correct?
(i) Conjugate base of NH2− is NH3
(ii) AlCl3 is an example for Arrhenius acid
(iii) Cu+ and Pt2+ are hard acids
(iv) FeCl3 is a Lewis acid
Answer
D. (iv)
113/2025 14 A
54
Trivalent cation of a transition metal, M forms an octahedral complex with ligands
A and B of formula [MA4B2]. Number of geometrical isomers possible for the complex is :
Answer
A. 2
55
Which of the following statements is correct?
(i) 12-Phosphotungstic acid has Keggin’s structure
(ii)
Answer
A. (i)
56
The possible number of microstates corresponding to an electronic configuration having
the ground state term 5D is :
Answer
D. 210
57
The electrogenic activity of Na+/K+ pump is due:
Answer
A. The development of negative potential inside the cell
58
The light absorption maxima of chlorophyll in PS II is designated as :
Answer
C. P 680
59
The 19F NMR spectra of PCl2F3 in isopentane, the resonances of fluorine at temperatures
≥ –22°C are appeared as:
Answer
C. Single doublet
60
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Ferrocene?
(i) The crystalline phase of ferrocene at room temperature is Monoclinic
(ii) Ferrocene obeys 18 electron rule
(iii) Ferrocene shows exceptional thermal stability
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
61
Which of the following statements correctly describes a characteristic or application of
inorganic solid-state materials?
(i) Solid Oxide Fuel Cells (SOFC) operate effectively at room temperature due to their
high ionic conductivity.
(ii) Metal-rich phases are typically associated with cationic conductivity and are
essential in rechargeable battery applications.
(iii) Fullerides are known for exhibiting unique electronic properties due to their
molecular structure, making them useful as one-dimensional metals.
(iv) Inorganic phosphors are primarily used in solid-state batteries due to their ability
to conduct both electrons and ions.
Answer
C. (iii) only
62
In which of the following applications would a material with strong pyroelectric
properties be most suitable?
Answer
B. Motion detection in infrared sensors
63
Which of the following applications of nuclear reactions is primarily associated with the
concept of critical size?
Answer
A. Power generation in nuclear fission reactors
64
Which type of crystal defect is primarily responsible for enhancing the electrical
conductivity of semiconductors?
Answer
Question Cancelled
65
Which of the following statements about the temperature dependence of conductivity in
semiconductors is most accurate regarding its underlying chemical and physical
principles?
Answer
C. Superconductivity occurs at low temperatures due to Cooper pair formation,
which is fundamentally a quantum mechanical phenomenon that does not
rely on traditional carrier mobility concepts
66
Give the IUPAC name of the given compound :
Answer
A. 4-Ethyl-1-isopropyl-2-methyl-cyclohexane
67
The specific kind of isomerism shown by BINOL is :
Answer
D. Atropisomerism
113/2025 17 A
68
Which of the following statement regarding Crams Rule is correct?
(i) It is related Conformers of chiral carbon containing Ketone.
(ii) It is related to conformation of cyclic compounds.
(iii) Predict the stereochemistry of addition reaction of carbonyl compounds.
(iv) It is related to chiral aldehydes.
Answer
C. (i), (iii), (iv)
69
When alcohol is treated with thionyl chloride the product formed is/are _____________
and the mechanism it follows is _____________.
Answer
C. R-Cl and SN i
70
The intermediate formed in Reimer-Tiemann reaction :
Answer
D. Dichloro carbene
71
_____________ is not a rearrangement reaction.
Answer
B. Heck
72
Which of the following is the correct statement when alkene is treated with the reagent
diimide?
Answer
D. All the above
73
When isotopic substitution is done at the position where the bond being broken then it
belongs to _____________ effect.
Answer
A. Primary isotopic
74
The method of finding the starting material from the target molecule is called
_____________ and the symbol used to represent it is _____________.
Answer
B. Retrosynthesis
75
The metal present in Tebbe’s reagent :
Answer
B. Al and Ti
76
Parallel synthesis is a method related to :
Answer
C. Combinatorial synthesis
77
Orlon is a monomer of :
Answer
Question Cancelled
78
Name the above reaction
Answer
C. Paterno-Buchi
79
How many H1 NMR signal is observed for DIethyl succinate?
Answer
B. 3
80
Which of the following can be used to identify Enantiomers?
Answer
D. Both ORD and CD
81
The entropy change (ΔS ) is one mole of an ideal gas during its heating from initial
temperature T1 to final temperature T2 under isobaric condition is :
Answer
C. ΔS = Cₚ ln(T₂/T₁)
82
The van der Waals constants a and b are related to the Boyle temperature Tᴮ as:
Answer
A. a/(bR) = Tᴮ
83
Maxwell relation, which is derived from thermodynamic relation dG = −SdT + VdP is :
ϑ S ϑ V ϑ S ϑ P
Answer
D. T = − P
ϑ V ϑ S ϑ P ϑ T
84
The yellow colour developed in NaCl, when it is heated in sodium vapour is due to :
Answer
B. Cl − ion vacancies filled with electrons
85
The Sucker-Tetrode equation is used to obtain the entropy of :
Answer
A. Monatomic ideal gas
86
Which of the following characterization method belongs to scanning probe microscopy?
Answer
A. Atomic Force Microscopy
87
In the Debye-Huckel limiting law, the logarithm of mean ionic activity coefficient
(log γ ± ) is related to :
Answer
B. Square root of ionic strength, I
88
The reversal of direction of electroosmotic flow can be achieved by :
Answer
D. Changing the polarity of the electrodes
113/2025 20 A
89
The primary kinetic salt effect becomes significant in solution-phase reactions when :
Answer
A. Both reactants are ions
90
In enzyme catalysis, the turnover number is defined as :
Answer
C. The substrate molecules converted per active site per second
91
The de Broglie wavelengths of an electron when accelerated by potential differences of 100 V and 1000 V are λ₁ and λ₂ respectively. How are λ₁ and λ₂ related?
Answer
C. λ₁ = √10 λ₂
92
The wave functions of Simple Harmonic Oscillator (SHO) are obtained in terms of :
Answer
D. Hermite polynomials
93
Excluding the J values, the ground state term symbols for vanadium (V 2 + ) and cobalt
Answer
A. F and 4 F
94
According to Dulong and Petit’s law, the molar heat capacity at constant volume of most
of solid elements at room temperature is approximately :
Answer
B. 6 cal K −1 mol −1
95
Which of the following correctly describes the line pattern observed in the rotational
spectrum of a rigid diatomic molecule?
Answer
D. Lines are equally spaced by 2 B
96
Which of the following statement is correct for Eriochrome black T?
Answer
C. It is most effective in the pH range of 8.1 – 12.4.
97
In thermogravimetric analysis :
Answer
B. The mass of a sample is measured over time as the temperature changes
98
After molecular recognition and complex formation takes place
Answer
B. ΔH of the complex should be negative
99
Which of the following is not involved in the principles of green chemistry proposed by
Anastas and Warner?
Answer
C. Volatile Solvents
100
The metal used in the first successful magnetic refrigerator device :
Answer
A. Gadolinium
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