| Post Name | Scientific Assistant (Physiotherapy) |
|---|---|
| Department | Medical Education Service Category No : 214/2021 |
| Question Paper Code | 015/2023/OL |
| Category Code | 214/2021 |
| Date of Test | 25 January 2023 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The following tendons pass under the flexor retinaculum except:
Answer
B. Flexor carpiulnaris
2
The highest point of iliac crest corresponds to
Answer
Question Cancelled
3
The following is not true about Peroneus Longus
Answer
D. Inserted into cuboid
4
The titrial nerve represents the following roots
Answer
Question Cancelled
5
The posterior column in the vertebral column consists of all except
Answer
A. Posterior Longitudinal ligament
6
The carpometacarpal joint is an example of
Answer
Question Cancelled
7
Which of the following is an ascending tract :
Answer
D. Spinothalamic
8
The following are true about Facial nerve except
Answer
C. Roots fuse before entering peatrous temporal bone
9
The following is not true about Thalamus
Answer
Question Cancelled
10
The following are true about synovial fluid except
Answer
B. Viscosity is independent of the rate of shear
11
Boxer's muscle is
Answer
A. Serratus Anterior
12
Action potential has following characteristics except
Answer
C. Cardiac pacemaker cell action potential is mediated by potassium channels
13
Tropomyosin
Answer
D. Covers actin-myosin binding sites
14
In post ganglionic sympathetic nerves, impulses are mediated by all except
Answer
A. Histamine
15
Respiration is influenced primarily by
Answer
A. Carbondioxide
16
Biceps brachi, flexing the forearm against resistance is an example of
Answer
C. Third order lever
17
Stability of shoulder joint is ensured by all except
Answer
D. Anterior tilt of glenoid fossa
18
Relative load on the spine is maximum in
Answer
A. Sitting with forward bending
19
Metatarsal break refers to
Answer
Question Cancelled
20
The normal angle of inclination of femur is :
Answer
D. 125°
21
The ‘Intrinsic plus' position indicates the following except
Answer
B. Ulnar nerve plasy
22
Osteoarthritis of Temporomandibular joint is associated with
Answer
C. Repeated minor trauma
23
Transverse spreading of the fore foot is referred to as
Answer
B. Splay foot
24
Gait initiation begins with
Answer
A. Activation of titrialis anterior and vastus lateralis
25
Schober test is done to
Answer
C. Measure lumbar spine flexion
26
The 'Gate Control Theory' of pain was proposed by Melzack and Wall in :
Answer
C. 1965
27
The method of application of short wave diathermy is influenced by
Answer
A. Grothuss-Draper Law (Absorption)
28
The following is true about interferential therapy (IFT)
Answer
D. Useful for pelvic floor re-education
29
The following is not a contra indication for low level laser therapy
Answer
B. Metal and plastic implants
30
The order of sensations experienced with an ice-water bath is
Answer
C. Cold, burning, aching, numbness
31
The range of pressure exerted in limb compression using a compression garment varies between
Answer
B. 10-80 mm of mercury
32
Contraindication for ultrasound application include all except
Answer
D. Enthesitis
33
The following is true about 'non contact low frequency ultrasound' :
Answer
A. Application technique is dynamic
34
Which of the following is not true about continuous passive motion?
Answer
B. Less effective in initial post operative phase
35
Which is not true about extracorporeal shock wave therapy?
Answer
C. Better results when done under image guidance
36
Which of the following exercises increases heart rate and arterial blood pressure, with rise in pressure related to intensity of exercise
Answer
Question Cancelled
37
Bridging exercises is not useful for
Answer
D. Strengthening of hip flexors
38
Normal capsular pattern observed in shoulder joint is
Answer
B. Lateral rotation, abduction, medial rotation
39
The technique used in treatment of rigidity of Parkinson's disease is
Answer
C. Rhythmic initiation
40
'Heart rate reverse' method to calculated target heart rate is called
Answer
C. Karvonen method (Karvonen)
41
Short bursts of strenuous activity to build muscle and strength is
Answer
B. Anaerobic exercise
42
Which is the close packed position in shoulder joint
Answer
D. Abduction, external rotation
43
Manual techniques for postural drainage are
Answer
A. Percussion, vibration, shaking
44
According to Frenkel's exercise, essentials to learn any new exercises are
Answer
C. Concentration, precision, repetition
45
The following criteria must be met to progress to final phase of rehabilitation after Total knee Arthroplasty except
Answer
B. Atleast 50% of muscle strength in knee and hip muscles
46
In case of a below knee amputee (transtibial amputation), the following are pressure tolerant areas except
Answer
C. Fibular head
47
Which of the following is a amputation at the tarsometatarsal level?
Answer
B. Lisfranc's
48
Burns of which of the following parts of the body are considered as major burns?
Answer
D. Both (1) and (3)
49
Which of the following statements regarding contraint induced movement therapy (CIMT) is true?
Answer
B. It is based on the principle of repeated practice and intense activity
50
lf a patient presents with a burn with damage to the epidermis, but only partial damage to the dermis and has blistering, how is the burn classified as?
Answer
B. Second degree or partial thickness
51
The Wee F/M functional assessment in paediatric population may be measured by beginning of which age?
Answer
B. 6 months
52
What axiom states that high intensity low repetition exercise builds strength and low intensity high repetitive exercise builds endurance?
Answer
C. De Lorme's axiom
53
In a patient with spinal card injury, intermittent clean catheterisation should be considered in which of the following?
Answer
C. Adequate hand function
54
Fatigue is a patient with multiple sclerosis will increase with
Answer
A. heating
55
The technique that uses ultrasound to deliver medications through the skin is
Answer
D. Phonophoresis
56
The examiner reviews the results of pulmonary function tests for a 58 year old male patient he notes that the patients total lung capacity is significantly increased when compared to established norms. Which medical condition would most likely produce this type of results?
Answer
B. Emphysema
57
The examiner observes patients breathing as part of respiratory assessment. Which muscle of respiration is most active during forced expiration?
Answer
C. Internal intercostals
58
While examining a 64 year old male patient with chronic bronchitis, the physician finds that his respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute. Which breathing technique would be most appropriate to decrease the patient's respiratory rate?
Answer
D. Pursed lip breathing
59
Which of the following is not an absolute contradiction for cardiac rehabilitation?
Answer
A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
60
Cardiac output is defined as a product of which of the following components?
Answer
A. Heart rate and stroke volume
61
Which of the following is a useful test in measuring exertion during physical activity
Answer
B. Borg Scale
62
Which of the following phases of cardiac rehabilitation is considered a structured out patient program?
Answer
B. Phase II
63
Which of the following is the simplest technique to clear secretions from the upper airways in pulmonary rehabilitation program?
Answer
D. Cough
64
A patient is positioned for bronchial drainage from the anterior segment of the upper lobes.The most appropriate position for the patient is
Answer
A. Supine with pillow under the knees
65
The coronary arteries mostly perfuse the myocardium during which cardiac phase
Answer
B. Diastole
66
While examining a patient with cerebellar degeneration, which of the following is not typically associated with this condition?
Answer
A. Athetosis
67
A 50 year old female patient complains of occasional difficulty in maintaining her balance. While walking and frequent episodes of vertigo. The most likely cause of the patients difficulty is a disorder of
Answer
D. Vestibular system
68
The medical record of a patient shows a lesion affecting the facial motor nucleus. Based on the patient's diagnosis, the most probable clinical presentation is
Answer
A. Facial muscle weakness ipsilateral to the lesion
69
The examiner assess a patients lower extremity deep tendon reflexes, using a reflex hammer. Which of the following reflexes would provide the examiner with the most information on L3-L4 neurological level?
Answer
A. Patellar reflex
70
The treatment plan for a patient with hemiplegia includes reinforcing normal movements through key points of control and avoiding all with reflex movement patterns and associated reactions. This approach most closely resembles
Answer
A. Bobath's
71
A 11- month old baby with cerebral palsy attempts to maintain a quadripod position. Which reflex would interfere with this activity if it was not ingrated?
Answer
B. Symmetric tonic neck reflex
72
Which of the following rehabilitation treatment option is commonly used for phantom limb pain?
Answer
D. All of the above
73
Spinal Cord Injury is classified by using which of the following scale?
Answer
C. ASIA (American Spinal Injury Association)
74
A 4 year old boy is brought to hospital because his mother had noticed that he has difficulty in getting up from a squatting position/seated position on the floor while playing with his toys. On physical examination, there is increase in calf circumference bilaterally. You think that the child has muscular dystrophy. The maneoure the child performs to assist him in standing is caused by
Answer
A. Proximal lower limb leakness
75
Neuroplasticity is a concept that refers to all of the following except
Answer
D. Insult or injury to the CNS is permanent and functional ability cannot be altered with any type of intervention
76
What is the most common location of Heterotopic Ossifiation (HO) in spinal cord injury patients?
Answer
A. Hip
77
A 17-year old student is stabbed in the back, and presents as following : Loss of sensation, paralysis and loss of vibration below T5 on the left, loss of pair and temperature below T5 on the right. what syndrome does she have?
Answer
B. Brown-Sequard Syndrome
78
Poliomyelitis and Werding Hoffman disease affect which portion of the spinal cord?
Answer
D. Ventral horns only
79
The examination of a patient who sustained a hyper extension injury of cervical spine reveals loss of proprioception and two point discrimination. With intact motor function. this type of incomplete spinal cord injury is most appropriately termed
Answer
D. Posterior cord syndrome
80
In a post stroke patient, with a flaccid left side, in order to facilitate muscular activity, the treatment plan should include
Answer
Question Cancelled
81
Accessory joint motions are assigned a joint play mobility grade of 0 to 6, in which a grade of 2 indicates
Answer
C. Slight hypomobility
82
In proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) patterns, shoulder position at the end of an upper limb D1 flexion is
Answer
D. Flexion, Adduction and External rotation
83
An abnormal position of patellae in which patellae are high and laterally displaced and face upward and outward is called
Answer
C. Grasshopper eyes patellae
84
A trendelenberg gait is characterized by
Answer
A. trunk shift on affected side, pelvic drop on opposite (unaffected) side
85
Heberden's nodes are a result of osteophytes due to Osteoarthritis of
Answer
A. Distal interphalangeal joints
86
Compared to young adults the following features are seen in gait in elderly
Answer
B. Shorter step length and increased double support period
87
A form of arthritis due to deposition of crystals of calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate in synovium or articular cartilage or menisci is called
Answer
D. Pseudogout
88
When applying joint mobilizations for metacarpophalangeal joints, a dorsal glide is given to increase?
Answer
B. Extension
89
One of the following is false regarding physiological adaptation to strength training exercise
Answer
Question Cancelled
90
When performing straight leg raise test modification of hip flexion, knee extension, ankle dorsiflexion and foot inversion is done to test
Answer
A. Sural nerve
91
Gait deviations of initial contact with medial border of foot associated with limited inversion range at subtalar joint is seen in
Answer
D. Pronated foot
92
Many adult problems which have their early origins in childhood (such as obesity) a level of prevention in which efforts are directed towards discouraging children from adapting harmful lifestyles and which aims at prevention of emergence or development of risk factors in countries or population groups in which they have not yet appeared is called
Answer
B. Primordial prevention
93
A type of exercise also called as accoumodating resistance exercise is
Answer
C. Isokinetic exercise
94
A ladder splint which is used for temporary splintage of fractures during transportation, which is made of two thick parallel wires with interlacing wires and can be bent into different shapes is
Answer
B. Crammer splint
95
Which of the following is not a part of the Apgar score which is taken at 1 minute and again at 5 minutes after birth
Answer
D. Birth weight
96
The minimum ramp grade (incline or slope) for a wheelchair ramp is that for every inch of threshold height there is a corresponding
Answer
C. 12 inch of ramp length (a running slope of 1:12)
97
For prolonged static positioning the position of choice for the high-risk pregnancies, which is optimal for reducing pressure on the inferior vena cava and for maximizing cardiac output, thereby enhancing maternal and fetal circulation
Answer
D. Left sidelying
98
Non weight bearing supination is composed of coupled calcaneal motions of
Answer
A. adduction, inversion and plantar flexion
99
A condition characterized by looser zone, protrusio acebatuli and triadiate pelvis is
Answer
B. Osteomalacia
100
A characteristic radiological feature of osteosarcoma is
Answer
C. Sunray appearance
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