| Post Name | SCIENTIFIC OFFICER (BIOLOGY) (Kerala Police Service (Forensic Science)) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 158/2024 |
| Category Code | 634/2023 |
| Date of Test | 12 November 2024 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
Answer
D. Each molecule of calmodulin contains two binding sites for calcium.
2
Find out the measure of central tendency which requires data arrangement in descending or ascending order for its calculation.
Answer
C. median
3
Which of the following statements are correct about numerical taxonomy ? i. It is a field primarily connected with procedural or operational problems. ii. It includes the drawing of phylogenetic inferences from the data by statistical or other mathematical methods. iii. It is not based on phenetic evidences but is based on phylogenetic probabilities. iv. It is the numerical evaluation of the similarity between groups of organisms and the ordering of these groups into higher-ranking taxa on the basis of those similarities.
Answer
C. Only i, ii and iv
4
Out of the total 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 amino acids, this suggests
Answer
C. Degeneracy of codons
5
Given below are statements pertaining to ANOVA technique. Identify the incorrect statement.
Answer
B. In ANOVA model, the different components of variance should follow multiplicative law.
6
Zinc-fingers are important in eukaryotic cell metabolism because they are
Answer
A. Structural motifs in many dNA-binding proteins
7
The following statements are made on transposons. i. The two most common families of moderately repeated sequences in human dNA – the Alu and l1 families are dNA transposons. ii. dNA transposons are segments of dNA that move from one place to another via a cut and paste mechanism. iii. Approximately 40 percent of the human genome consists of dNA transposons and more than 3% consists of retrotransposons. iv. Retrotransposons operate by means of a copy-and-paste mechansim that involves an RNA intermediate. Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct ?
Answer
B. Only ii and iv
8
Which of the following is not the part of dNA polymerase III holoenzyme ?
Answer
A. SSB proteins
9
Given below are few statements regarding the controlling of the cell cycle. i. The cell cycle is controlled primarily at two points – START and G1-m transition. ii. Cdc25 normally plays a key role in the G2/m transition by removing inhibitory phosphates from Cdk1. iii. Sic1 acts as Cdk inhibitor during G1. iv. Entry of a cell into m phase is triggered by the activation of mPF. Which one of the following combinations of above statements is incorrect ?
Answer
A. Only i
10
Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the term species ? i. It may be regarded as morphologically definable units, made up of groups of individuals which are not usually interbreeding and containing one or more gene pools. ii. The biological species concept was advanced by Ernst mayr. iii. It is a community of cross-fertilizing individuals linked together by bonds of mating and isolated reproductively from other species by barriers to mating. iv. members of the same species are reproductively compatible, but are reproductively isolated from other species.
Answer
A. Only i
11
Enlisted below are different types of sampling methods (Column - A) and explanation (Column - B), but not in the same order. Column A: 1. Stratified sampling; 2. Probability sampling; 3. Systematic sampling; 4. Non-probability sampling. Column B: p. Researchers select members of the population at a regular interval; q. Items for the sample are selected deliberately by the researcher; r. The population is divided into several sub-populations that are individually more homogenous than the total population and then select item from each group to constitute a sample; s. Every item of the universe has an equal chance of inclusion in the sample. Choose the correct combination.
Answer
D. 1 - r, 2 - s, 3 - p, 4 - q
12
Which of the following is not an example of transmembrane transport between different sub-cellular compartments ?
Answer
C. Transport from endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi complex
13
Which of the following statements is/are an objective of PPV and FR Act, 2001 ?
Answer
D. All of the above
14
The design of two oligonucleotide primers is the key to the success of a PCR reaction. Choose the statement which is not correct about the primers.
Answer
B. They must be complementary to each other.
15
Column — A lists the types of variables and Column — B lists the explanation of these variables, but not in the same order. Match both the columns carefully and select the correct option from those listed below them. Column-A Column - B 1. Dependent variable p. Variables that are not related to the purpose of the study, but may affect the outcomes of the research study 2. Independent variable q. Variables which can take on an unlimited number of values between the lowest and highest points of measurement 3. Continuous variable r. The variable, value of which may change due to change in the value of other variables 4. Extraneous variable s. It is the variable that stands alone and is not changed by other factors
Answer
D. 1-r,2-s,3-q,4-p A 6
16
Given below are set of statistical methods (Column - A) and their applications in biological research (Column - B), but not in the same order. Column A: 1. Regression analysis; 2. Spearman's coefficient of correlation; 3. Variance; 4. Chi-square analysis. Column B: p. Calculate the deviation between observed and expected values; q. Measure the spread of a distribution; r. Prediction of value of a dependent variable based on known value of an associated variable; s. Measure the degree of association between two variables. Choose the correct combination.
Answer
A. 1 - r, 2 - s, 3 - q, 4 - p
17
Following are few statements regarding sandwich ElISA. Find the option with incorrect statement.
Answer
C. monoclonal or polyclonal antibodies cannot be used as the capture and detection antibodies in this method.
18
Given below is a list of analytical techniques
Answer
D. i – b, ii – c, iii – d, iv – a
19
Which one of the following statements about miRNAs is not true ?
Answer
B. miRNA are a class of short, non-coding RNA molecule, play a significant role in the regulation of gene expression at the transcriptional level.
20
Which one of the following statements about phase contrast microscope is correct ?
Answer
C. The phase contrast microscope converts differences in refractive index of different parts of an object into differences in intensity, which are visible to the eye.
21
Which one of the following microscopy works on the principle of interferometry to gain information about the optical path length of the sample, to see otherwise invisible features ?
Answer
A. Nomarski microscopy
22
The following are the statements about Km value. i. It is one half of maximum reaction velocity. ii. The values of Km are measured in terms of molarity. iii. By knowing the Km value of a particular enzyme-substrate system, one can predict whether the cell needs more enzyme or more substrate to speed up the enzymatic reaction. iv. If an enzyme can catalyze a reaction with two similar substrates in the cell, it will prefer that substrate for which the enzyme has lower Km value. Which of the above statements is/are true ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
23
Which of the following is correct michaelis-menten equation ? V [S ]
Answer
B. V = max Vmax [S] K m + [S ] Vmax + [S]
24
Concentration of which of the following hormones increase in plants during senescence ?
Answer
C. Ethylene and ABA
25
Given below are group of inhibitors of oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport chain (Column - A) and their roles (Column - B), in a random order. Column A: 1. Oligomycins; 2. Atractylic acid; 3. Rotenone; 4. Cyanides. Column B: a. Inhibit flow of electrons from cyt. a3 to O2 in the last place of electron transport chain; b. Blocking the activity of enzyme ATPase in the inner mitochondrial membrane; c. Blocking ADP-ATP antiport in the inner mitochondrial membrane; d. Check the flow of electrons from Fe-S protein in the complex-I to Ubiquinone. Choose the correct combination.
Answer
B. 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - a
26
How many molecules of NADPH and ATP respectively are required for the fixation of 6CO2 molecules into one hexose sugar molecule through Calvin cycle ?
Answer
B. 12 NAdPH and 18 ATP
27
Following statements are related to the beta-oxidation of fatty acids. 1. beta-hydroxyacyl CoA is dehydrogenated and form beta-keto fatty acyl CoA. 2. Thioclastic cleavage of beta-keto fatty acyl-CoA into fatty acyl-CoA and acetyl CoA. 3. The activation of fatty acids in the presence of ATP and enzyme thiokinase and produce fatty acyl-CoA. 4. Two hydrogen atoms are removed between alpha and beta-C atoms and a trans alpha, beta-unsaturated fatty acyl-CoA is formed in the presence of acyl-CoA dehydrogenase. 5. The addition of a water molecule across the double bond to form corresponding beta-hydroxyacyl-CoA in the presence of enoyl hydrase. Which one of the following combinations of the above statements is in the correct sequential order?
Answer
C. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
28
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
Answer
D. Vernalization is an anaerobic process.
29
Which of the following mineral ions are required for the photolysis of water in photosynthesis ?
Answer
A. mn++ and Cl– ions
30
Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization (FISH) techniques are used for the detection of
Answer
Question Cancelled
31
Which among the following is not a primary nucleotide database ?
Answer
D. PIR
32
Artificial competence in cells using calcium chloride method was discovered by
Answer
A. mandel and Higa
33
dOT blot is a technique used to detect
Answer
Question Cancelled
34
The transfer of gene to target plant cell using a very thin needle is called
Answer
B. microinjection
35
Which Committee has been constituted by the Government of India to keep a check on genetically modified research product ?
Answer
B. GEAC
36
Homozygosity and heterozygosity of an individual can be determined by
Answer
A. Test cross
37
Which among the following is not an autosomal recessive genetic disorder ?
Answer
B. Haemophilia
38
Which amino acid has the triplet codon GUU ?
Answer
B. Val
39
Which of the following phase is involved in the conversion of chromatin to chromosome ?
Answer
C. m-phase
40
The phage transduces those bacterial genes only which are adjoining to the prophage is observed in
Answer
A. lambda Phage
41
Which of the following is a dietary compound having epigenetic effect ?
Answer
D. All of the above
42
Who coined the term “Chromosome” ?
Answer
C. Waldeyer
43
Which one among the following factors does not affect the Hardy Weinberg principle ?
Answer
D. Nutrition
44
Which of the following medium is composed of chemically defined compounds ?
Answer
B. Synthetic media
45
Which of the following component is an unorganised extracellular layer that surrounds the bacterial cell wall ?
Answer
A. Slime layer
46
The primary agenda of the Kyoto Protocol is
Answer
A. Control of Greenhouse Gases
47
Which method of sterilization is called fractional sterilization ?
Answer
C. Tyndallization
48
Which among the following group of viruses causes SARS disease ?
Answer
A. Corona viruses
49
Which is an example of secondary air pollutant ?
Answer
B. Acid rain
50
Vineyard sprayer’s lung disease is due to chronic poisoning of
Answer
C. Copper
51
Examples of Echinoderm are
Answer
D. All of the above
52
The maximum volume of air contained in the lung by a full forced inhalation is called
Answer
D. Total lung capacity
53
Only right aortic arches are present in
Answer
A. Birds
54
Which of the following statements about Placozoa is/are correct ?
Answer
D. All of the above
55
Kidneys in the human body extend from
Answer
A. 12th thoracic vertebrae to 3rd lumbar vertebrae
56
Chromophil cells in annelids are concerned with the secretion of
Answer
B. Protease
57
Antioxidants fight against
Answer
C. Free radicals
58
Which of the following is the uncharged derivative of an acidic amino acid ?
Answer
D. Glutamine
59
Black stinging catfish (Kaaree/kadoo in malayalam) is a popular and delicious freshwater fish of Kerala. But it obtained its scientific name only recently, in 2021; its scientific name is
Answer
D. Heteropneustes fuscus Plamoottil
60
The systems that work together to regulate water balance of the body are
Answer
D. Urinary and cardiovascular
61
Which of the following parts of the brain regulates the respiratory process ?
Answer
C. medulla oblongata
62
Isotopes of an element have a different number of
Answer
B. Neutron
63
digestion of proteins occurs in
Answer
A. Ileum
64
The strongest bond is
Answer
Question Cancelled
65
Name the first cell which is recruited at the place of infection.
Answer
C. Neutrophils
66
The specificity of an antibody is due to
Answer
C. The variable portion of the heavy and light chain
67
According to Boyle’s law of Gases
Answer
D. If the volume goes up, the pressure goes down
68
If there is any damage in the hypothalamus of brain, it may affect
Answer
A. Regulation of body temperature
69
Primary immune reaction is given by
Answer
B. Igm
70
‘‘Blood bank’’ of the body is
Answer
C. Spleen
71
The endocrine gland setting the biological clock of the body is
Answer
D. Pineal gland
72
These substances will not stimulate an immune response unless they are bound to a larger molecule
Answer
C. Hapten
73
Which of the following is not a plasma protein ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
74
lining of the trachea is made up of
Answer
D. Pseudostratified epithelium
75
How many types of antibodies are there ?
Answer
A. Five
76
Comprehension of spoken and written words takes place in which area of brain ?
Answer
B. Wernicke’s area
77
Which of the following statements is true about the Igm of humans ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
78
How many lobes are present in human left lung ?
Answer
B. 2
79
Which of the following compounds is not found in tears ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
80
B cells that produce and release large amounts of antibodies are called
Answer
C. Plasma cells
81
___________ is used to silence the expression of specific genes.
Answer
Question Cancelled
82
First gene responsible for human genetic disease was isolated by positional cloning was the gene of
Answer
B. Cystic fibrosis
83
___________ produced by genetic engineering is used to dissolve blood clot.
Answer
D. Urokinase
84
Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trait
Answer
C. High Vitamin A content
85
___________ is specially bred fish that could detect pollution by selectively fluorescing in the presence of environmental pollutants.
Answer
A. Glo Fish
86
A monoclonal antibody that has catalytic activity
Answer
A. Abzyme
87
__________ are the substances added to vaccine preparation that help aid in the delivery of vaccine.
Answer
C. Adjuvants
88
mouse in which normal gene has been disabled is called
Answer
A. Knock out mouse
89
In insects moulting hormone ecdysone are produced by
Answer
A. Prothoracic gland
90
Blastulae produced by spiral cleavage is called
Answer
C. Stereoblastula
91
Tissue that produce signal that changes the cellular behaviour of other tissue
Answer
B. Inducer
92
Coding regions of eukaryotes is called
Answer
B. Exons
93
Exogenous agents that causes birth defects called
Answer
A. Teratogens
94
Expanded form of BmP is
Answer
A. Bone morphogenetic Proteins
95
Capacity of undifferentiated cells to develop into any type of cell in the body of an organism is called
Answer
B. Totipotent cells
96
The entrance of more than one sperm during fertilization resulting the aneuploidy is called
Answer
B. Polyspermy
97
The person from which pedigree is initiated is called
Answer
C. Proband
98
Trisomy 21 is called
Answer
D. down Syndrome
99
Who secured Nobel Prize in Physiology in 2022 ?
Answer
C. Svante Paabo
100
When the plasma of a person has both anti A and anti B antibodies, the blood group of this person would be
Answer
C. Group O
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