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Kerala PSC Senior Lecturer in Obtetrics and Gynaecology in Medical Education Previous Question Paper – 007/2018/OL

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Post NameSENIOR LECTURER IN OBTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY in Medical Education
Question Paper Code007/2018/OL
Category Code148/2017
Date of Test6 February 2018
Medium of QuestionENGLISH
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
'Vedhadhikaraniroopanam' is written by
Answer
B. Chattampi Swamikal
2
'Rajyasamacharam' is associated with
Answer
C. Dr. Herman Gundert
3
The women regiment of the Indian National Army (INA) was led by
Answer
A. Lakshmi Sahgal
4
The founder of 'Atma Vidya Sangham' was
Answer
C. Vaghbatananda
5
Who started the journal 'Sahodaran' from Mattanchery?
Answer
A. K. Ayyappan
6
'The Melmundu Samaram' is popularly called
Answer
D. Channar Agitation
7
'Sadhu jana Paripalana sangham' was founded by
Answer
B. Ayyankali
8
'Darsanamala' is written by
Answer
C. Sree Narayana Guru
9
The concept of 'Fundamental Duties' is borrowed from the constitution of ________
Answer
D. USSR
10
The Right to Information Act is passed in the year
Answer
D. 2005
11
Article 356 of the Indian constitution was imposed for the first time in the state of _______
Answer
B. Kerala
12
The Ezhava memorial was submitted to the ruler of Travancore under the leadership of
Answer
A. Dr. Palpu
13
The 'Wagon tragedy' incident is related with the
Answer
A. Malabar Rebellion
14
Who led the 'Savarna jatha from Vaikkom to Thiruvananthapuram during the Vaikkom Satyagraha'?
Answer
C. Mannathu Padmanabhan
15
'Kanneerum Kinavum' is an autobiography of __________
Answer
C. V.T. Bhattathirippad
16
The seat of 'SCT Institute for Medical sciences and Technology' is at
Answer
D. Thiruvananthapuram
17
The University of Travancore was started during the time of
Answer
B. Sri Chithira Thirunal
18
Winner of the Vayalar Award, 2017 is
Answer
D. T.D. Ramakrishnan
19
The physician who was associated with the publication of 'Horthus Malabaricus'
Answer
B. Itty Achuthan
20
The founder of Kerala sala sangham
Answer
A. P.N. Panicker
21
When does HCG level reach a peak in normal pregnancy?
Answer
C. 60 - 70 days
22
Following are renal changes in pregnancy except
Answer
D. Serum creatinine increased
23
Predictors of pre eclampsia in 1st trimester are all except
Answer
C. HCG
24
All are causes of mobile head in primigravida at term except
Answer
C. Low inclination pelvis
25
The distance between mid point of racial promontary and inner margin of upper symphasis pub is
Answer
A. 11 cm
26
Which test indicates lung maturity?
Answer
B. Shake test
27
The following are true about retraction except
Answer
B. progressive and intense during 1st stage
28
Not a sign of early pregnancy
Answer
A. Lemon sign
29
Folds of Hoboken are found in
Answer
D. Umbilical cord
30
Milk secretion is enhanced by all hormones except
Answer
D. estrogen
31
All are common causes of recurrent mid trimester abortions except
Answer
C. Aneuploidy
32
All are true regarding partial mole except
Answer
A. Karyotype 46XX
33
Most common cause of perinatal mortality in multiple pregnancy
Answer
D. Prematurity
34
All of the following are causes of polyhydramnios except
Answer
C. Urethral obstruction
35
Retained succenturiate lobe of placenta may lead to
Answer
D. All of the above
36
Which of the following regime is not found to be of use in prevention of PIH in high risk women?
Answer
C. Salt restriction
37
Contraindication for expectant regime in placenta praevia are all except
Answer
A. Bleeding at 36 wks
38
Which of the following Doppler findings in IUGR is associated with worst prognosis?
Answer
A. Reversal of diastolic flow
39
Contraindication for ventouse extraction is
Answer
A. Prematurity
40
Indication for classical caesarian
Answer
B. C_AC_X
41
Cardiac failure is most likely in pregnancy at
Answer
D. 4th stage of labour
42
Most common cause of maternal hypothyroidism
Answer
A. Autoimmune thyroid disease
43
In a well baby clinic a neonate is brought with liver two fingers enlarged. The cause is
Answer
A. Normal phenomenon
44
Meconiam is excreted in new born till day
Answer
B. 3
45
Commonest type of Genito urinary fistulae
Answer
A. Vescico vaginal
46
The commonest gynaecological cause of retention urine
Answer
A. Vaginal operations
47
Which surgical procedure has the highest incidence of ureteric injury?
Answer
C. Werthimes hysterectomy
48
A semen sample reveals 15 million/ml, 80% normal morphology 80% motile and volume 3 ml, pH-8 diagnosis
Answer
C. Oligospermia
49
In a patient with infertility treated with clomiphene which of the following methods is best for follow up?
Answer
C. USG to monitor follicle size
50
A patient treated for infertility with clomiphene presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and distension with ascites. Probable cause is
Answer
D. Hyper stimulation syndrome
51
Management of azoospermia due to blocked vasdeferens
Answer
B. PESA
52
Puberty menorrhagia is managed by
Answer
B. Progestogens
53
A 35 yr old woman presents with DUB not responding to medical management. Management is
Answer
C. Endometrial ablation
54
Gartners cyst can be differentiated from cystocoele by all except
Answer
C. Impulse on coughing
55
Fixed retroversion is caused by
Answer
D. All of the above
56
Enterocoele repair during abdominal operation is
Answer
B. Moschowitz repair
57
In the pathogenesis of Endometriosis, Meyer and Ivanoff theory suggests which of the following as a cause of endometriosis?
Answer
B. Coelomic metaplasia
58
Investigation of choice in Endometriosis
Answer
D. Laparoscopy
59
All are used in treating spasmodic dysmenorrhea except
Answer
A. Bromergocryptine
60
The benefits of combined oestrogen progestrone replacement therapy include all except
Answer
C. Decrease in CA breast
61
The primary carcinoma of body of uterus may be following types except
Answer
D. Large cell keratinising type
62
Commonest symptom of vulval cancer
Answer
A. Pruritis
63
Call exner bodies are seen in
Answer
C. Granulosa cell tumour
64
Most common malignancy of vagina
Answer
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
65
Contraceptive failure is calculated by
Answer
A. Pearl Index
66
Mirena is effective for
Answer
D. 5 years
67
Commonest complication of intrauterine device
Answer
A. Bleeding
68
Post partum IUCD is inserted
Answer
A. within 10 mts of placental expulsion
69
A rape victim comes on 4th day for contraception. The best method is
Answer
D. CuT
70
Which progestogen in OC pill is ideal in contraception for a woman who fears weight gain?
Answer
B. Drosperinone
71
Which of the following contraceptive produces Hypokalemic paralysis and arrythmias?
Answer
C. Glossypol
72
Senile vaginitis is due to
Answer
D. Estrogen deficiency
73
Intra abdominal pressure at laparoscopy should be set between
Answer
B. 10 - 15 mm of Hg
74
Mifeprostone may be used for all except
Answer
A. Threatened abortion
75
Results of recanalisation is better if tubal sterilization is done with
Answer
A. Filshies clip
76
Which of the following is not a branch of internal iliac artery?
Answer
B. External pudental
77
Foeto-placental circulation is established at
Answer
D. 22nd day
78
Placenta is formed from
Answer
A. Chorion feondosum and decidua basalis
79
The following are associated with DIC except
Answer
D. Fat embolism
80
Most important complication of fulminant hepatitis in pregnancy
Answer
A. Obstetric haemorrhage
81
Materno fetal transmission in Toxoplasmosis occurs maximally in
Answer
C. 3rd trimester
82
Which is not a complication of Rh incompatibility?
Answer
C. Oligamnios
83
The following are contraindications of trial labour except
Answer
B. 1st degree CPD
84
Bishops score include all except
Answer
C. Contraction
85
The most important factor in success of induction of labour
Answer
B. Cervical factor
86
The most important function of forceps
Answer
D. Traction
87
Commonest cause of Breech presentation
Answer
D. Prematurity
88
The most important complication of surgical management of broad ligament haematoma
Answer
C. Injury to ureter
89
A case of 35 wks pregnancy with polyhydramnios and marked respiratory distress is managed by
Answer
C. Amniocentesis
90
Rupture of membranes is said to be premature when it occurs at
Answer
B. 32 wks of pregnancy
91
Post term pregnancy is that which continues beyond
Answer
B. 294 days
92
Which does not cause hydrops fetalis?
Answer
C. ABO incompatibility
93
The best time to do chorionic villus sampling is
Answer
D. Between 11 - 13 wks
94
Amniotic fluid contains acetylcholine esterase enzymes, what is the diagnosis?
Answer
A. Open spina bifida
95
Which of the following drugs is teratogenic?
Answer
D. All of the above
96
According to MTP Act 2nd doctors opinion is required when pregnancy is
Answer
C. > 12 wks
97
Late hyperglycemia in pregnancy is associated with
Answer
A. Macrosomia
98
Which of the following abnormality is commonly seen in fetus with congenital malformation in CMV infection?
Answer
C. Blood dyscrasias
99
Late deceleration on a CTG indicates
Answer
C. Fetal hypoxia
100
Which is true regarding Appendicitis in pregnancy?
Answer
D. More likely to cause generalised peritonitis

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