| Post Name | SENIOR LECTURER IN ORTHOPAEDICS NCA- MEDICAL EDUCATION |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 010/2018/OL |
| Category Code | 151/2017 |
| Date of Test | 14 February 2018 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
'Navika Sagar Parikrama', a circum-navigation expedition by an all-woman Indian Navy crew, was flagged off on Sept 10, 2017 from which state?
Answer
A. Goa
2
Who is the Chief Justice of India?
Answer
B. Dipak Misra
3
Who is the father of 'Modern Kerala Renaissance'?
Answer
D. Sree Narayana Guru
4
Who was the owner of the famous newspaper 'Swadeshabhimani'?
Answer
C. Vakkam Abdul Khadar Maulavi
5
Which event led to the Royal Proclamation of July 26, 1859?
Answer
D. Shanar Agitation
6
Who accepted the pen name 'Kesari'?
Answer
C. Vengayil Kunhiraman Nair
7
Who is regarded as the 'father of political movement' in modern Travancore?
Answer
A. G. Parameswaran Pillai
8
'Hit Refresh' is a famous book written by _________.
Answer
C. Satya Nadella
9
Who authored the work 'Mokshapradipam'?
Answer
B. Brahmananda Sivayogi
10
Nair Service Society (NSS) has been modelled after which organization?
Answer
C. Servants of India Society
11
Who is the Chief of International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
Answer
A. Christine Lagrade
12
Article 24 deals with __________.
Answer
B. Prohibition of employment of children
13
'Kazhinja Kalam' is the autobiography of ________.
Answer
B. K.P. Kesava Menon
14
Who authored the novel 'Sarada'?
Answer
C. O. Chandu Menon
15
When did Sri Chithira Tirunal Balarama Varma issued his famous Temple Entry Proclamation?
Answer
B. Nov. 12, 1936
16
'Wagon Tragedy' happened to be a tragic episode of _______.
Answer
D. Malabar Rebellion
17
Which article of our Constitution describes India as a 'Union of States'?
Answer
A. Article 1
18
Which country has roped in Bollywood actress Parineeti Chopra as their tourism ambassador?
Answer
D. Australia
19
Under the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana, black money worth _________ was disclosed.
Answer
A. Rs. 4,900 crore
20
Which state assembly has passed the bill on parental care on Sept 15, 2017?
Answer
D. Assam
21
The following are true about Caffey's disease, except
Answer
A. Warm swellings over the mandibles
22
Sarcoidosis is also known as the following, except
Answer
A. Osteitis tuberculosis simplex cyctoides
23
In chronic low back pain, correlation between CT and EMG for localisation of nerve root injury is between
Answer
D. 65 to 73%
24
Acute Brachial neuritis usually affects
Answer
A. Long thoracic nerve
25
The following are true in Necrotising facilitis caused by streptococcus Pyogenes, except
Answer
D. Usually associated with gas in deep tissues
26
Lytic changes of bone are radiologically visible due to loss of __________% of bone density.
Answer
A. 50 - 75
27
The most common site of haematohgenous osteomyelitis in adults is
Answer
A. Vertebrae
28
Common causes of Sternal Osteomyelitis after cardiac surgery are all except
Answer
A. Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
29
Ossification center of Greater tuberosity of Humerus appears between the following age
Answer
D. 3rd month to 2 year
30
The most widespread type of cartilage in the body is
Answer
A. Hyaline cartilage
31
The following factors hindring absorption of calcium from the intestine, except
Answer
D. Excessive Magnesium
32
Which of the following is a feature of High Phosphorous rickets?
Answer
C. Monkeberg sclerosis
33
The following is true of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism due to renal damage, except
Answer
B. High Calcium level
34
Of the following, which bone is most frequently involved by Paget's disease
Answer
A. Skull
35
Empty can' test is done to detect
Answer
D. Supraspinatus impingement
36
Birbeck granuless in Histiocyosis X are found inside
Answer
B. Langerhan's cells
37
The following is true about Ollier's disease, except
Answer
B. Bilateral distribution of enchondromas
38
The following are associated with 'coxa saltans' except
Answer
D. Rectus femoris tear
39
The following is true about Riche Cannieu Anastomosis, except
Answer
B. Connection from MN to UN in the forearm
40
''Jersey Finger'' commonly affects
Answer
A. Ring finger
41
The manifestations of Neurofibromatosis include all except
Answer
C. Lateral scaloping of cervical vertebrae
42
The following is true about Non osteogenic Fibroma of bone
Answer
D. Both ends of Fibula may be involved
43
Features of Fibrous dysplasia include all except
Answer
D. Malignant transformation in 30-50%
44
Gurd test is aid in diagnosis of
Answer
C. Fat embolism
45
The following is true regarding liposarcoma
Answer
B. Liposarcoma can metastasise to bones
46
The following is true about Gaucher's disease except
Answer
D. X linked recessive inheritance
47
Needle shaped negative birefringent crystals in synovial fluid is seen in
Answer
B. Gout
48
Which of the following is not useful in treatment of homocystinuria ?
Answer
B. Niacin
49
Which of the following congenital disorders can present with hyperuricemia?
Answer
C. Von Gierke's disease
50
Aldol Cross links are seen in
Answer
B. Collagen
51
The following are false about ''Park and Harris'' Lines, except
Answer
B. They are usually distributed relatively symmetrically
52
The function of Ostenectin in bone is
Answer
C. Binds Calcium
53
The normal value of blood pressure in a 12 year old (systolic-diastolic) in mm Hg is
Answer
B. 115 - 65
54
The maximum recommended does of local anaesthetic - Lidocaine (with Epinephrine) in children is
Answer
D. 7 mg/kg
55
Recommended catheter placement for compartmental pressure measurement, the following is false
Answer
C. Forearm : Extensor compartment
56
The following is true about Neurogenic shock, except
Answer
B. Cold extremities
57
In Young and Burgess classification, APC type III includes
Answer
A. Complete disruption of Sacro Iliac Joint
58
The structures causing irreducible anterior hip dislocation are all except
Answer
C. Ligamentum teres
59
In femoral neck fractures, OTA 31-B3.1 correlates to
Answer
C. Garden 3
60
The following are features of Cleidocranial Dyostosis, except
Answer
D. Usually Autosomal Recessive
61
Hunters syndrome is mucopolysaccridoses type
Answer
B. MPS Type II
62
In Hastings Classification of Heterotopic Ossification, Type III is
Answer
D. Bony ankylosis of elbow
63
Which is described as Type I Monteggia equivalent fracture by Bado, except?
Answer
D. # ulnar diaphysis & olecranon with posterior dislocation of radial head
64
The Central compartment of the foot contains
Answer
A. Flexor digitorum brevis
65
The best radiologic view to assess Scaphoid tubercle fracture is
Answer
A. 45 degree oblique semi-pronated
66
The type III periprosthetic Tibia Fractures after Total Knee Arthroplasty, fracture location is
Answer
C. Distal to Prosthesis
67
The criteria for 'Complex Regional Pain Syndrome' in Orthopaedic setting includes all except
Answer
D. Painless joint mobility
68
In Mirels criteria for risk of pathologic fracture, moderate pain is assigned a variable of
Answer
C. 2
69
In Osteoporosis, BMD T-score is
Answer
C. < 2.5
70
The volume of contrast needed for Hip arthroscopy is
Answer
B. 15 ml
71
The type of evidence in Observational study is considered as
Answer
B. Low quality
72
In Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS), systolic BP transiently < 90 mm Hg has a score of
Answer
B. 1
73
The Functional Independence Measurement (FIM) score is based on
Answer
C. 13 motor and 5 cognitive items
74
Indications for 'Early Total Care' in trauma patients includes
Answer
A. Lactate <2 mmol/L
75
Cotton Ball spots in the skull is seen in
Answer
D. Pagets disease
76
All are Lipoid histiocytoses, except
Answer
D. Letterer-Siwe disease
77
The views used in ''FAST'' ultrasound scans include all except
Answer
A. longitudinal subxipoid view
78
The following are false about defined parameters for Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome, except
Answer
C. Heart rate < 90 beats / min
79
Serum Inflammatory markers for Medicator activity include all, except
Answer
B. Lipopolysaccharide binding protein
80
Coded value of 3 in Unweighted Reverse Trauma Score as used in Field Triage, has respiratory rate of
Answer
B. > 29 / min
81
The mechanism of action of a 'Position' screw is
Answer
C. Holds anatomical parts in correct relation to each other
82
In Oestern and Tcheme classification of closed fractures, 'superficial abrasion/contusion with mild fracture pattern's is
Answer
A. Grade 1
83
Ultimate tensile strength (Mpa) of cortical bone is
Answer
D. 100
84
The following muscle attaches to the anterior surface of the fibular shaft, except
Answer
A. Tibialis posterior
85
In anterior tibial syndrome, the following are false except
Answer
A. Extensor digitorum brevis is involved in the late phase
86
The following muscles attaches to the posterior diaphysis of Tibia, except
Answer
D. Biceps femoris
87
The following are false about Sarcoidosis, except
Answer
C. Lymphocytes in surrounding tissues are sparse
88
The following are true about congenital neurofibromatosis, except
Answer
C. Kyphoscoliosis with single mid thoracic curve
89
The following are accessory ossicles in the foot, except
Answer
D. Os supra tibiale
90
In classification of Apophyseal injuries of Olecranon in children, Type III A is
Answer
B. Pure apophyseal avulsions
91
In proximal radius fractures, 'Reduction injuries' associated with elbow dislocation are classified as
Answer
B. Type D
92
The following attach to Radius, except
Answer
B. Anconeus
93
Posterior interosseous nerve supplies all, except
Answer
C. Pronator Quadratus
94
The acceptable residual angulation in metaphyseal fractures in the sagittal plane in girls aged 9-11 years is
Answer
A. 10 deg
95
Unicameral bone cysts are considered 'active' if they have the following features, except
Answer
A. Thick membrane
96
The following are usually involve the posterior elements of the vertebra, except
Answer
C. Giant Cell Tumour
97
The peak age in years, for pathologic fracture for Chondroblastoma is
Answer
C. 10 - 20
98
In Glasgow coma scale, ''Eye opening :To speech'' has a score of
Answer
D. 3
99
The dosing schedule of Naproxen (oral) in children is
Answer
C. 5-7.5 mg/kg q 12h
100
The following is true of Rhabdomyosarcoma, except
Answer
A. occurs exclusively in striated muscles
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