| Post Name | SENIOR LECTURER IN PLASTIC AND RECONSTRUCTIVE SURGERY |
|---|---|
| Department | MEDICAL EDUCATION |
| Question Paper Code | 105/2017/OL |
| Category Code | 154/2017 |
| Date of Test | 16 January 2018 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The Kerala river mentioned in the Arthasatra of Koudillya
Answer
A. Pamba
2
The author of Mukunthamala
Answer
B. Panini
3
Name of the first Geoinformatic Panchayath in Kerala
Answer
C. Aruvikkara
4
The largest producer of rice
Answer
C. China
5
Present Chief Election Commissioner of India
Answer
D. Achalkumar Jyothi
6
The last Indian state which accepted GST
Answer
A. Jammu and Kashmir
7
The west flowing rivers is one of the following
Answer
A. Narmada
8
The hilly areas of north eastern state bordering the Myanmar is known as
Answer
B. Purvanchal
9
The rainy season starts in Tamil Nadu during the winter season. The main reason is
Answer
C. North east monsoon
10
One of the soils in Kerala formed due to alternate hot and wet season
Answer
D. Laterite soil
11
Nebular theory is connected with
Answer
A. Immanuel Kant
12
The only one classical dance which include cultural aspect of Hindus and Muslims
Answer
B. Kathak
13
The birth place of Tunchat Ezhuthachan
Answer
C. Tirur
14
Name the Indian city which is recently declared world heritage site by UNESCO
Answer
D. Ahammadabad
15
The residence name of S. K. Pottakkad
Answer
A. Chandrakantham
16
The poet known as Mahakavi of Mappilappatu and the author of 'Badarul muneer and Husnul Jamal'
Answer
C. Moinkutty Vaidyar
17
The viral disease which affect lungs
Answer
B. H1N1
18
The founder of Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangam
Answer
A. Ayyankali
19
Sree Nayayana Guru consecrated a Siva idol in 1888 by shocking the orthodox section at
Answer
B. Aruvippuram
20
The movement of Vakkom Abdul Khader Moulavi is
Answer
D. Travencore Muslim Maha Jana Sabha
21
Lesions in the oral cavity having high potential for malignant transformation are all of the following except
Answer
C. Chronia hyperplastic candidiasis
22
Most common site of hypospadias is
Answer
A. Coronal
23
The most accepted mechanism of wound contraction is attributed to
Answer
B. Myofibroblast
24
The function of Z-plasty is
Answer
D. All of the above
25
The first instrument built specifically for harvesting of skin graft was developed by
Answer
A. Humby
26
Primary contraction is more in
Answer
D. Full thickness graft
27
In proliferative phase, which type of collagen is laid down ?
Answer
C. Type III
28
Commonest nerve for nerve graft is
Answer
B. Sural nerve
29
Oral cavity proper containes all except
Answer
C. Posterior 1/3 tongue
30
Precursor skin lesions may be present in all the following cutaneous malignancies except
Answer
D. Angiosarcoma
31
Necrolytic migrating erythemous dermatitis is feature of
Answer
C. Glucagonoma syndrome
32
The neo-epidermis of a scar of healed wound avulses easily and is more fragile than normal skin because of
Answer
D. It is devoid of rete pegs
33
PET scan detect malignant lesion by picking up
Answer
B. Areas of hypermetabolic activity
34
Out of the following, which one is usually not an axial pattern flap ?
Answer
A. Inter polation flap
35
Following are the flaps that rotate about a pivot point, except
Answer
A. V-Y advancement flap
36
Following requirements are essential for a Limberg's flap except
Answer
B. The defect may be in any shape
37
In Z-Plasty 100 perent theoretical gain in length is achieved with angles of
Answer
C. 75-75
38
In the Mathes and Nahai classification Pectoralis Major and Latissimus Dorsi Muscles belong to
Answer
D. Type V
39
The classification of nerve injuries was originally proposed by
Answer
B. Seddon
40
The most aggressive type of Basal Cell carcinoma is
Answer
C. Morpheaform
41
Which of the following statements is not true for Marjolin's ulcer ?
Answer
C. It carries a risk of metastasis of nearly 50%
42
Not true for Groin Flap
Answer
A. It is a hairy flap
43
The surgical technique of total excision of lymphoedematous tissue and skin grafting is known as
Answer
D. Charle's procedure
44
Tarsal tunnel syndrome presents as symptoms of compression of
Answer
C. Posterior tibial nerve
45
According to Gustilo classification, the compound fracture of tibia with soft tissue loss and exposed bone is labeled as
Answer
B. Type III B
46
In carcinoma breast patient absolute contraindications to breast conservation are the following except
Answer
D. Radiation induced
47
True statements for butolinum toxin A are the following except
Answer
A. Clinically the beneficial effects of the toxin are apperest for more than one year
48
Level VI cervical nodes drain the following except
Answer
D. Naso phanynx
49
Following are the signs and symptoms of fracture except
Answer
A. Absence of stepping in the infraorbital margin
50
Unilateral cleft lip result from failure of fusion of
Answer
B. Median nasal process and maxillary prominence
51
Which of the following is not true for a patient seeking lower lid blepharoplasty ?
Answer
C. Excess skin below the level of the orbital margin is usually corrected by lower lid blepharoplasty
52
Le fort II facial fracture, by definition involves
Answer
A. The orbital floor always
53
Common findings in submucus cleft are the following except
Answer
B. Velophayngeal in sufficiency
54
In complete bilateral cleft of the lip and palate, the protruding premaxilla is attached to
Answer
C. Vomerine bone
55
In Pierre Robin sequence, the cleft palate should be repaired
Answer
D. Repair is delayed as compared to other cleft palate closures
56
In the repair of cleft lip, upper lip Z-plasty is included in
Answer
C. Randall Tennison repair
57
Following statements are true for Carpenter syndrome, except
Answer
B. It is not a genetic disorder
58
Not true for teacher Collins syndrome
Answer
A. Unilateral hypoplasia of the body and arch of zygoma
59
Following signs and symptoms are commonly present in zygomatic fractures, except
Answer
D. Increased malar prominence
60
Vertically favourable fracture of the mandible should usually be treated with
Answer
D. Mandibulo-maxillary fixation
61
Usually the plane of cleavage of scalp avulsion is
Answer
C. Loose areolar tissue
62
The largest vessel supplying the scalp are
Answer
C. Superficial temporal arteries
63
True for scalp skin, except
Answer
D. It is not connected to the galea aponeurotica
64
Following statements are true for the galea aponeurotia in the scalp except
Answer
C. It does not have any attachment to the overlying skin
65
Most common site of fracture of mandible is
Answer
A. The neck of the condyle
66
Craniofacial dysjuction is seen in fracture maxilla type
Answer
C. Le Forte III
67
Not true for blow out fractures of the orbit
Answer
D. Presence of fracture in the inforaobital rim
68
Which answer is true regarding structural fatgrafting ?
Answer
B. It can be used to augment midface hypoplasia
69
Commonest cause of Burns in Children <5 years old
Answer
C. Scalds
70
High voltage electric burn is when the voltage is
Answer
B. ≥ 1000 V
71
Amount of fluid used for resuscitation in Burn patient using parkland formula is
Answer
D. 4 ml/kg/% TBSA
72
Traditional classification of hemorrhagic shock a blood loss 30-40% is labled as
Answer
C. Class III shock
73
Complications of massive blood transfusion include all except
Answer
D. Hyperthermia
74
In major acute burn patients, changes in glucose metabolism include
Answer
A. Increased serum glucose and increased serum insulin
75
The rule 9s for the extent of surface area involvement in burns was described by
Answer
C. Wallance
76
Analgesic of choice for acute burn is
Answer
C. IV OPIATES
77
Burn injury to skin, subcutaneous fat into underlying muscle or bone is classified as
Answer
B. IV degree burn
78
All are resuscitation formula used for calculating fluid requirement in burn patients except
Answer
B. Berknow formula
79
Deep partial thickness burns will heal in
Answer
D. More than 21 days with contractures
80
Full thickness burns are charactised by the following except
Answer
A. Presence of blisters
81
Suggested 'ideal' breast measurements in the context of inferior pedicle breast reduction surgery do not include
Answer
C. The nipple to inframammary fold distance of 3.4 cm
82
In the management of chemical burns, the following first aid should be done except
Answer
C. Neutralization of the inciting agent should be done
83
Clinodactyly and camptodactyly are examples of
Answer
B. Failure of differentiation or separation of parts
84
Most common type of thumb duplication is
Answer
D. Duplicated proximal phalanx
85
Following statements are true for macrodactyly, except
Answer
B. The little finger is most frequently affected
86
True for Dupuytren's disease except
Answer
B. The scar tissue contains normally occurring type 1 collagen
87
Absolute contraindication to replantation is
Answer
C. Multiple injuries within the amputation part
88
The most frequent indication for tendon transfer is
Answer
B. Paralysis of healthy muscle, usually from nerve injury
89
Strong contraindications to elective thumb reconstruction include the following except
Answer
D. High patient expectations
90
True for carpal tunnel syndrome, except
Answer
A. It is a neurological disorder median nerve
91
Kaplan's cardinal line is formed by
Answer
B. A line draw from the apex of the first web space to the edge of pisciform bone
92
Felon is
Answer
C. Subcutaneous abscess of the distal pulp of finger
93
Which zone of hand is also known as 'no man's land' ?
Answer
A. Zone II flexor tendon system
94
In the process of breast implant selection, the following are important except
Answer
B. Bra and cup size
95
Kienbock disease is
Answer
A. Avascular necrosis of lunate
96
Which of the test is done for median nerve injury ?
Answer
B. Jeanne's sign
97
Dominant pedicle to Tensor Fascial lata is
Answer
D. Ascending branch of lateral femoral circumflex artery
98
The anterolateral thigh perforator flap in first reported by
Answer
B. Beck and Song
99
Thoracdorsal artery perforater flap was first described by
Answer
A. Angrigiani
100
Singapore flap technique used reconstruction of which structure ?
Answer
B. Vagina
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