| Post Name | SENIOR SCIENTIFIC ASSISTANT IN THE DEPARTMENT OF PHYSIOLOGY |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 184/2024 |
| Category Code | 409/2023 |
| Date of Test | 27 December 2024 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
In the classical conditioning experiment, conducted originally by Ivan Petrovich Pavlov,
a restrained hungry dog is given meat powder (food) in association with the sound of a
bell. Choose the correct statement regarding the classical conditioning experiment :
Answer
C. Bell is the conditioned stimulus and food is the unconditioned stimulus
2
DNA barcoding is a promising method to identify organisms. Which is the most
commonly used DNA barcode region for identifying animal species?
Answer
D. COI
3
In the modern study of organic evolution, Peter R. Grant and Rosemary Grant reviewed Darwin's observations on the birds now known as Darwin's finches. If the number of species on Cocos Island is a and on the Galápagos Islands of Ecuador is b, choose the right statement.
Answer
B. a = 1 and b = 14
4
Chromosomal mutations are proven to be an important factor in the course of evolution,
especially when considering the neutral theory of molecular evolution. In one peculiar
example, the Karyotype of one species (Species 1) contain chromosomes more than six
times in the other (Species 2) closely related (in terms of morphology and anatomy)
species. Choose the correct species pair from the below given name pairs that show this
condition :
Answer
C. Species 1-Muntiacus reevesi and Species 2-Muntiacus muntjac
5
Which are the amino acids produced in the famous Miller-Urey experiment?
Answer
C. Alanine and Glycine
6
Which mass extinction event was known to be connected with Chicxulub crater?
Answer
A. K–T Extinction
7
Choose the right name of the group of human populations found in the Indian region
with which the Indigenous Andaman Islanders are more related :
Answer
C. Ancestral South Indians
8
Coral reefs are known for their exceptional biodiversity and high primary productivity.
Choose the false statement from the below given statements :
Answer
A. Corals carry symbiotic Archaea which are the major primary producers in
Coral Reef Ecosystem
9
The name of the theory proposed by Lynn Margulis to explain the evolution of
eukaryotes is given in the following options. Choose the most used and correct name of
the theory :
Answer
C. Endosymbiotic theory
10
Below given names are of mammalian species which are distributed in South India.
Choose the name of a species that is endemic to this region :
Answer
B. Nilgiritragus hylocrius
11
The technique used by a researcher in which respondent unconsciously provides
information of his own attitudes or feelings is :
Answer
B. Projective techniques
12
How long is the term of copyright protection in India?
Answer
D. Lifetime of the creator, plus 60 years after death
13
A research design includes :
(i) Choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.
(ii) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.
(iii) Procedures and techniques to be used for gathering information.
(iv) Manipulating the circumstances, situation, or experience.
Answer
C. (i) and (iii)
14
Order the various steps of the research process :
(i) Data Analysis
(ii) Hypothesis testing
(iii) Formulating the hypothesis
(iv) Determining sample design
Answer
B. (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
15
In qualitative research, “triangulation” refers to :
Answer
B. Validating data by cross-checking with multiple sources or methods
16
The sampling technique that a Researcher would recommend when the exact size and
characteristics of the population are not known would have the following features :
(i) Every member does not get equal chance in sample
(ii) Own judgment is used to select a sample
(iii) Random selection is opted
(iv) Researcher may select individuals who are most accessible
Answer
D. (i), (ii) and (iv)
A 5 184/2024
17
The normal distribution has the following features :
(i) It is completely defined by the mode and standard deviation
(ii) The mean and standard deviation are the key parameters
(iii) The mean, median and mode are all identical
(iv) It has two humps
Answer
B. (ii) and (iii)
18
Pie charts are used to show :
(i) How various sections are divided
(ii) Relationship of parts to the whole
(iii) Show how one whole is related to other wholes
(iv) How each segment represents contribution of a category to the whole
Answer
B. (ii) and (iv)
19
The t-test used for evaluating the effectiveness of a treatment group (1) compared to a
control group (2) is useful to
(i) Compare two groups to see whether their means differ
(ii) Test significance of correlation coefficient
(iii) Test significance of regression coefficient
(iv) Compare whether their medians differ
Answer
A. (i), (ii) and (iii)
20
Which is the test to compare the observed values in your data to the expected values that
you would see if the null hypothesis is true?
Answer
B. Chi-square tests
21
Which type of radiation is most likely to cause genetic damage in human?
Answer
B. Gamma rays
22
The primary effect of ionizing radiation on protein is :
Answer
D. Cross-linking of protein chains and fragmentation
184/2024 6 A
23
An ideal molecule that can diffuse directly across the cell membrane should be :
Answer
B. Small and non-polar
24
Which property of radioactive tracers makes them suitable in biological studies?
Answer
C. Detectable radiation emission without altering the system’s chemistry
25
The chemical fixation during biological specimen preparation for TEM primarily helps
for :
Answer
C. Preserving the structural integrity of the sample
26
How do temperature affect pH measurement?
Answer
D. Alters the ionization of water
27
What element in the body is primarily responsible for generating the MRI signal?
Answer
C. Hydrogen
28
In spectrophotometry, what does a peak in the absorbance spectrum indicate?
Answer
A. Wavelength at which maximum light is absorbed
29
Which one is a limitation of immunoelectrophoresis?
Answer
C. Time-consuming and requires skilled interpretation
30
Retention time (tR) in HPLC refers to :
Answer
D. Time between sample injection and elution of a compound
A 7 184/2024
31
What is the source of the ATP used by muscles for vigorous activity that may last for
10 to 15 seconds?
Answer
D. creatinine phosphate in muscle and ADP react to form the required ATP
32
What is the function of “intrinsic factor” in gastric juice?
Answer
C. to assist with the absorption of vitamin B12
33
In a cross-section view of the spinal cord, there is a butterfly-shaped structure. What
would the posterior grey horn of this structure primarily consist of?
Answer
B. the cell bodies of interneurons
34
What is the purpose of ‘blocking step’ in ELISA?
Answer
C. To prevent non-specific binding of antibodies
35
The complement system is activated by :
Answer
A. IgG and IgM
36
The type of T cells that recognize antigens presented by MHC Class I molecules :
Answer
B. CD8+ T-cells
37
How does an enzyme accelerate a reaction?
Answer
C. Decreasing the energy required to form transition site
38
Find the incorrect match :
Answer
D. Galactosemia : Low level of galactose in blood
184/2024 8 A
39
Aminoacids responsible for N-linked and O-linked glycosylation of proteins :
Answer
B. Asparagine and threonine
40
The role of thiolase enzyme in beta oxidation of fatty acid :
Answer
D. Cleavage
41
Which of the following technique helps a researcher to follow the movements of
molecules in the membranes of living cells using light microscope?
Answer
B. FRAP
42
Coated vesicles of Receptor-Mediated Endocytosis are coated with which of the following
proteins?
Answer
C. Clathrin
43
Which among the following statement is true for RISC?
Answer
Question Cancelled
44
Same messenger evoke different responses in different cells, what could be the correct
reason for this among the following options?
(i) Different cells have different set of receptors
(ii) Receptors of different cells are coupled to different internal machinery
Answer
C. Both option (i) and (ii) are correct
45
Which among the following is presumed to be the reason for cell detachment during
apoptosis?
Answer
A. FAK
46
Mice lacking a gene for claudin-1 dies of dehydration – what could be the reason for this?
Answer
C. Water loss due to lack of tight junction
47
Which among the following can be described as epigenetic phenomena?
Answer
D. All above
48
Natural selection favoured the use of thymine rather than uracil in DNA – what could be
the possible reason among the following options?
(i) Thymine has higher resistance to photochemical mutation
(ii) Cytosine can be converted to uracil
Answer
C. Both (i) and (ii)
49
Protein named Maturation Promoting Factor (MPF) is responsible for initiating M-phase
in a cell cycle. Which among the following is the regulatory unit of MPF protein?
Answer
A. Cyclin
50
Among the following, which family of receptors attaches the cell to their extracellular
microenvironment?
Answer
C. Integrins
51
Which among the following statements concerning the development of the embryo is
incorrect?
Answer
C. Prospective potency of the epidermis area in an early gastrula is restricted to
the nervous system and normal skin epithelium only
52
Zona pellucida covering mammalian eggs contain :
(i) Glycoproteins
(ii) Sulfated mucopolysaccharides
(iii) Hyaluronic acid
(iv) Sialic acid
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
53
Identify the gene, the absence of whose product, leads to the production of hunchback
protein throughout the insect embryo and inhibits the abdomen-generating gap genes :
Answer
A. Nanos gene
54
The phenomenon in which animals retain their juvenile form but the gonads and
germline develop at a faster rate than normal, and they become sexually mature while
the rest of the body is still in a juvenile phase :
Answer
B. Progenesis
55
Match the following :
(1) Prothoracicotropic Hormone
Answer
D. production of ecdysone
56
Genomic imprinting in humans can result in :
(i) Inactivation of the gene for insulin-like growth factor 2 (Igf-2) present on
chromosome derived from the mother.
(ii) Activation of Igf-2r gene present on chromosome derived from the mother
Answer
C. Both (i) and (ii) are correct
57
Microsatellite DNA can be found within :
Answer
C. centromeres and telomeres, and regulatory flanking regions, intronic regions,
and transcription units of genes
58
Which among the following can’t be a reason for different phenotypic consequences of
epigenetics?
Answer
A. a single nucleotide substitution
59
Identify the incorrect statement :
Answer
D. The amount of DNA in the haploid genome of an organism is always directly
proportional to the complexity of the organism
A 11 184/2024
60
A man with congenital red-green colour blindness marries a normal woman :
Answer
B. Their daughters will be carriers and grandsons can be colour blind
61
Which among these is an example of niche partitioning?
Answer
B. Two species using different resources in the same environment
62
Who proposed the Gaia hypothesis?
Answer
B. James Lovelock
63
What is the primary purpose of an ecological pyramid?
Answer
C. study the flow of energy through an ecosystem
64
What is carrying capacity in ecology?
Answer
D. maximum number of individuals that an environment can support
indefinitely
65
What is the significance of edge effect in ecology?
Answer
B. increases the level of species richness
66
What is the primary focus of the Lotka-Volterra hypothesis?
Answer
D. Predation and Prey dynamics
184/2024 12 A
67
Which of the following is a common method of wetland reclamation?
Answer
D. All of the above
68
What is the primary role of remote sensing in ecology?
Answer
C. To monitor environmental changes and patterns over large areas
69
What is the aim of IPCC?
Answer
D. Conduct climate change research and provide scientific advice to policy
makers
70
What is the main objectives of Wildlife Protection Act of 1972?
Answer
C. provide a framework for the conservation and management of wildlife in
India
71
Teichoic acids are present in the cell walls of :
Answer
A. Only gram-positive bacteria
72
What will be the generation time of bacterial culture with a growth rate constant of 2 at
its exponential phase of growth?
Answer
B. 0.5 hours
73
Nitrite is oxidised to nitrates in nitrogen cycle by members of which of the following
genera?
Answer
C. Nitrobacter
74
HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is
Answer
A. Enveloped RNA virus
75
Oxidation of pyruvate results in the production of :
Answer
B. Acetyl Co-A
76
Proteins are separated in SDS-PAGE on the basis of their :
Answer
D. Size
77
Lac Z gene containing Multiple Cloning Sites (MCS) in plasmids encode for which of the
following enzyme
Answer
B. Beta — Galactosidase
78
Which of the following is a commonly used cryo-protectant?
Answer
C. Glycerol
79
What is an Intellectual Property (IP) license?
Answer
B. Permission to use IP
80
Which protein structure is crucial for therapeutic protein stability?
Answer
C. Tertiary
81
Column A represents the scientific name of some agricultural pests and Column B
represents the primary crop target of these pests in the random order :
Column A Column B
(1) Earias vittella
Answer
B. Cotton
(3) Nilaparvata lugens
82
Which of the following fish is an exotic ornamental fish of Kerala?
Answer
C. Cyprinus rubrofuscus
83
Which of the following is an example of protistan disease in aquarium fish?
Answer
A. Costiasis
84
What is the chromosomal composition of an individual with Klinefelter’s syndrome?
Answer
C. 22AA+XXY
85
Which of the following is/are the endemic bird(s) of the Western Ghats?
(i) Rufous Treepie
(ii) Grey -headed Bulbul
(iii) Indian Roller
(iv) Black-and-Orange Flycatcher
(v) White-throated Kingfisher
Choose the correct answer :
Answer
A. (ii) and (iv)
86
Which of the following statements are true about the applications of PCR in molecular
diagnosis?
(i) PCR has wide application for detection of infectious diseases and cancer diagnosis.
(ii) PCR is effective for diagnosing the diseases caused by prions.
(iii) Parental diagnosis of specified disorders can be possible by using PCR.
(iv) PCR amplifies the specific DNA sequence and can sequence the entire genome
Choose the correct answer
Answer
D. (i) and (iii)
87
Which of the following factors is most critical in minimizing false-positive results in
molecular diagnostic assays?
Answer
B. Implementation of rigorous contamination control measures
88
Which biochemical finding is most indicative of a defect in fatty acid oxidation, such as
medium-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase (MCAD) deficiency?
Answer
C. Hypoketotic hypoglycemia
89
Which of the following statements correctly classifies the mammals based on their
reproductive characters?
Answer
C. Eutheria – viviparous, no pouch development, placenta nourishment
90
Which of the following is the smallest live feed commonly used as a starter feed for newly
hatched fish larvae?
Answer
D. Infusoria
91
What distinguishes chimeric antigen receptor
Answer
B. CAR-T cells are equipped with synthetic receptors to identify specific tumour
antigens independent of MHC presentation
92
What renders CRISPR different from other repetitive DNA sequences?
Answer
A. The repeats are interspaced by similarly sized non-repetitive DNA and they
are clustered in one or several loci on the chromosome
93
Which of the following statements about Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) is
Incorrect?
Answer
C. Embryos resulting from ICSI are guaranteed to have normal genetic material
as the sperm bypasses the acrosome reaction
94
In the context of the recent controversies surrounding gender testing in Olympic boxing,
particularly with athletes possessing XY chromosomes, what role does the SRY gene play
in the development of sexual characteristics?
Answer
A. The SRY gene induces the formation of testes in XY individuals, leading to
the production of testosterone and the development of male sexual
characteristics
95
Katalin Karikó and Drew Weissman were awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or
Medicine for their research that led to the development of mRNA vaccines for COVID-19.
What key discovery did they make regarding mRNA that enabled its use as a
therapeutic tool?
Answer
B. They identified that chemical modifications in mRNA could reduce immune
system activation and enhance protein production
96
Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun were awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize in Physiology or
Medicine for their groundbreaking work on small RNA molecules. What did their
research on the lin-4 gene in C. elegans reveal about gene regulation?
Answer
C. The lin-4 gene produces a small RNA that inhibits protein production by
binding to complementary sequences in the lin-14 mRNA
97
What unique evolutionary trait was observed in the newly discovered horned dinosaur
Lokiceratops rangiformis?
Answer
B. Unique skull and horn patterns driven by sexual selection
98
What recent discovery has provided evidence for learning capabilities in unicellular
organisms?
Answer
A. Stentor roeseli showed adaptive responses to repeated stimuli, supporting a
form of elementary learning
99
Which of the following recent discoveries has increased concerns about the potential
spread of HPAI H5N1 to humans?:
Answer
A. H5N1 virus has been detected in bovine milk, raising concerns about
transmission to mammals
100
Which of the following is a key finding from the recent study that reconstructed the Tree
of Life for modern birds?
Answer
B. The study identified a new grouping of birds called “Elementaves,” which
includes penguins, pelicans and hummingbirds
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