| Post Name | Skilled Assistant Gr II 014/2024 |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 066/2025 |
| Category Code | 014/2024 |
| Date of Test | 19 June 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The difference of voltage and pressure across two points in a circuit is known as _____
Answer
A. Potential difference
2
Name the property of a substance which gives opposition to flow of electron through itself.
Answer
C. resistance
3
The composition in electrician's solder are _______
Answer
B. Tin 60%, Lead 40%
4
Which soldering method is used for quantity production and for tinning works?
Answer
A. Dip soldering method
5
The resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to _______
Answer
C. Length of conductor
6
The resistance offered between the two opposite faces of a metre cube of the material is
called ______
Answer
C. Specific resistance
7
Which is the best conductor of electricity?
Answer
A. Copper
8
A semiconductor has _____ temperature coefficient.
Answer
B. Negative
9
Expansion for ACSR conductor is _______
Answer
A. Aluminium conductor steel reinforced
10
Each question is provided with four choices
Answer
D. having one correct answer. Choose
the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or
Black Ball Point Pen in the OMR Answer Sheet.
11
Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has
Answer
B. High inductance
12
Which type of supply is needed for transistor radio?
Answer
C. Low voltage DC
13
The resistivity of a conductor
Answer
A. Increases very slowly by increase in the temperature
14
The temperature co-efficient of resistance of a conductor is
Answer
D. Different for different temperatures
15
What factor does the reactance depend on?
Answer
A. Frequency
16
Power in a pure capacity AC circuit is
Answer
Question Cancelled
17
When the battery is charged, the positive plate becomes
Answer
Question Cancelled
18
One Farad is
Answer
A. One coulomb/volt
19
In electric machine, laminated cores are used with a view to reduce
Answer
B. Eddy current loss
20
The indication of the state of charge of a battery is best given by
Answer
A. Specific gravity of electrolyte
21
Which of the following statement/s accurately describes the relationship between current
and the magnetic field it produces?
(i) A current-carrying conductor produces a magnetic field that is inversely proportional
to the magnitude of the current.
(ii) T
he magnetic field lines produced by a straight current-carrying wire form
circles concentric with the wire, and their direction is given by the right-hand rule
(for conventional current).
(iii) The magnetic field strength inside a long solenoid is independent of the number of
turns per unit length.
(iv) A changing magnetic field always induces a voltage in a nearby conductor, but a
constant magnetic field does not exert any force on moving charges.
Answer
Question Cancelled
22
What happens to the magnetic field in a coil when the current through it is reversed?
Answer
D. It reverses direction
23
Which of the following is not a unit of magnetic field strength?
Answer
Question Cancelled
24
An inductor with an inductance of 50 mH carries a current of 4 A. Calculate the energy
stored in the magnetic field of the inductor.
Answer
A. 0.4 joules
25
A coil of area 0.02 m2 is placed in a magnetic field of 0.3 T perpendicular to the plane of
the coil. What is the magnetic flux through the coil?
Answer
C. 0.006 weber
26
In a DC steady-state circuit, what happens to the current through an ideal capacitor after
a long time?
Answer
C. It becomes zero
27
When capacitors are connected in parallel, which of the following statements is true?
Answer
B. The voltage across each capacitor is the same
28
Which of the following factors does not directly affect the capacitance of a parallel plate
capacitor?
Answer
D. The resistance of the plates
29
Why do paramagnetic materials show temporary magnetism?
Answer
C. Due to unpaired electrons aligning with an external magnetic field
30
A coil with 100 turns and an area of 0.01 m2 is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the
magnetic field changes from 0.2 T to 0.8 T in 0.1 seconds, then calculate the induced EMF.
Answer
A. 6 V
31
Which installation test is conducted to check whether switches are connected in
phase/live line?
Answer
D. Polarity test
32
In alternating current generation principle, when the coils are moving parallel to the
magnetic field, which of the following statement is/are correct?
(i) It cuts no lines of force.
(ii) No voltage is generated in this instant
(iii) It cuts the maximum number of lines of force
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
33
Which one of the statements is NOT true for system earthing?
Answer
D. Earthing of non-current carrying metal works and conductors, essential for safety
66/2025 9
34
Which of the following methods is/are used for marked horizontal runs?
Answer
C. Spirit level and water level
35
Which one of the statements is related to aluminum?
Answer
B. It is lighter in weight and has 60.6% conductivity compared with copper
36
Some stranded conductors are designated as 10 sq.mm cables of size 7/17. What does '17'
denote?
Answer
D. Diameter of each conductor in SWG
37
Which one of the following factors is NOT related to the current carrying capacity of a
cable?
Answer
C. Height of cable run
38
'Electrical inspectors now recommend that current protection devices like MCB and HRC
fuses be included in the circuit for the safety of the user and to reduce fire accidents'.
Which type of current protection is mentioned in the above statement?
Answer
A. Close excess current protection
39
Which refers to 'IS 694 part β 1 β 1964'?
Answer
D. PVC-insulated copper and aluminum cable sizes
40
Which one is an ADVANTAGE of a stranded conductor?
Answer
B. More mechanical strength
41
What is the formula for dynamically induced emf?
Answer
C. BLV sinΞΈ volts
42
How interpoles are connected in a D.C. generator?
Answer
B. In series with armature
43
What is the purpose of compensating winding in D.C. generator?
Answer
B. Neutralizes the demagnetizing effect
44
Which rule determines the direction of rotation of armature in D.C. motor?
Answer
B. Fleming's left hand rule
45
Which rule determines the direction of current in D.C. motor?
Answer
B. Fleming's left hand rule
46
What is the necessity of starter for D.C. motor?
Answer
A. Limits the armature current
47
Why the D.C. series motor field winding is wound with thick wire?
Answer
C. To carry the load current
48
Why the newly rewound armature must be preheated before varnishing?
Answer
D. Drives out the moisture from it
49
How can the effect of armature reaction be neutralized in large D.C. generators?
Answer
C. Using compensating winding
50
What is the effect if the shunt field resistance is above critical resistance value in a
D.C. generator?
Answer
A. Generator fails to build up voltage
51
What is an essential part of a DOL starter?
Answer
B. Contactor
52
What is the primary advantage of a three-phase induction motor over a single-phase
induction motor?
Answer
D. Self-starting capability
53
How many earth connections should be done in a 10 Hp squirrel cage induction motor as
per IE (Indian Electricity) rule?
Answer
A. two
54
What does a star-delta starter do?
Answer
C. Reduces starting current by connecting the motor to the star during startup
55
In which three-phase connection, the line voltage is always β3 times the phase voltage?
Answer
C. Star connection
56
Which device protects from overload and short circuit in a panel board?
Answer
D. Miniature circuit breaker
57
Which switch with an actuator is operated by the motion of a machine or part of an
object?
Answer
A. Limit switch
58
How is the external resistance of a slip ring induction motor connected?
Answer
B. Star connected
59
What is the name of the speed of rotating magnetic field (r.m.f.) produced in the stator of
a three-phase induction motor?
Answer
C. Synchronous speed
60
Why skew the slots in the rotor of a three-phase induction motor?
Answer
D. Avoid magnetic locking
61
What is the unit of sensitivity in instruments?
Answer
B. Ohm/Volt
62
Which quantity is measured by an electrodynamic type instrument?
Answer
A. Power
63
Which instrument is used to measure one ohm and below one ohm resistance value
accurately?
Answer
C. Shunt type ohm meter
64
Which type of transformer is used for high frequency application?
Answer
B. Ferrite core transformer
65
Which transformer is used to measure high voltage installations?
Answer
C. Potential transformers
66
Which type of energy meter works with neutral connection?
Answer
C. Single-phase single element
67
What is the function of buchholz relay in power transformer?
Answer
D. Protection from both overloading and short circuit
68
Why the moving coil meter is having uniform scale?
Answer
A. Deflecting force is directly proportional to the current
69
Which cooling method is used in pole mounting distribution transformer?
Answer
D. Oil natural air natural
70
If the No load voltage of a transformer is 240 volt and full load voltage is 220 volt, then its
percentage voltage regulation is _____
Answer
D. 9.09 %
16 66/2025
71
Which of the following is the unit of illumination?
Answer
C. Lux
72
A 220 V lamp has 20 Lumen/watt and takes a current of 500 mA. Its total flux in lumens
is ______
Answer
B. 2200
73
The mercury vapor lamp gives a colour of _______ light.
Answer
A. Greenish blue
74
Which of the following diode is most suitable for the detection of microwave signals?
Answer
D. Schottky diode
75
The number of depletion layer in transistor is _______
Answer
B. 2
76
A transistor in CB configuration has Iα΄ = 5 mA and IΚ = 25 ΞΌA. What is the current gain?
Answer
A. 0.995
77
In a transistor, the signal is transferred from a _____ circuit.
Answer
C. Low resistance to high resistance
78
The region between peak point and valley point of tunnel diode is called ______.
Answer
D. Negative resistance
79
In a transistor, I_C = Ξ±I_E + ______.
Answer
B. I_CBO
80
Which of the following is an acceptor impurity?
Answer
C. Indium
81
Which is the basic necessity for the economic development of a country that exists in
different forms in nature?
Answer
A. Energy
82
Name the following energy source which is not used as a non-conventional power
generation.
Answer
C. Hydro
83
Which type of source of energy is used for small scale power generation to specific purpose?
Answer
B. Wind
84
What type of power generating station has the lowest running cost?
Answer
C. Hydropower generating station
85
Which device is used for raising boiler efficiency of thermal power station?
Answer
D. Economiser
86
What is the main function of air pre-heater in thermal power station?
Answer
C. Extracts heat from the flue gases
87
Which water turbines are used for high head purposes?
Answer
A. Impulse turbines
88
Sluices gates are used in ______ power generating stations.
Answer
B. Tidal
89
Which unit is used for power to internal auxiliaries of wind turbines in wind power
generation?
Answer
B. Internal supply unit (ISU)
90
What is the simple assembly of modules in solar panels?
Answer
A. Array
91
Which type of A.C. transmission is universally adopted?
Answer
C. Three-phase three wire
92
What is the name of the conductor used on overhead lines?
Answer
B. ACSR
93
Which electric lines connect the substation to distributors in distribution system?
Answer
B. Feeders
94
Which type of line insulator is used for terminating on corner poles?
Answer
Question Cancelled
95
What is the advantage of AC power transmission?
Answer
A. Voltages can be stepped-up and stepped-down easily
96
Pin type insulators are normally used in OH lines upto the voltage of about
Answer
C. 33 KV
97
What is the main purpose of crossarm used in electric poles?
Answer
B. Holding the insulators on overhead line
98
What is the voltage ratio in A.C. distribution line adopted for domestic consumers?
Answer
D. 415 V/240 V
99
In which substation, the transmission line voltage is stepped down to consumer supply
voltage?
Answer
A. Distribution substation
100
What will happen to the string arrangement of disc insulators if one of the disc insulator
gets damaged?
Answer
B. Only the damaged disc will not function
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