| Post Name | Social Worker (MSW)-Medical Education Services |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 032/2022 |
| Category Code | 001/2019 |
| Date of Test | 23 March 2022 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The Question Paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions of Question Booklets with Question Booklet Alpha Code viz. A, B, C & D. 2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of the Question Booklet. 3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in your seating position in the Examination Hall. 4. lf you get a Question Booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in the seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY. 5. The Question Booklet Serial Number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your rc Question Booklet is un-numbered, please get it replaced by new Question Booklet with same | alpha code. | < 6. The Question Booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should — not open the Question Booklet, until the indication is given to start answering. 7. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check that the Question Booklet supplied to him/her contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The Question Booklet does not have unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is most important. 8. A blank sheet of paper is attached to the Question Booklet. This may be used for rough work. 9. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking your answers. 10. Each question is provided with four choices
Answer
D. having one correct answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black Ball Point Pen in the OMR Answer Sheet. 11. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions. 12. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without handing over his/her Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided. 13. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the disqualification of the candidate.
2
“The application of scientific method of helping people to help themselves” who is the author of concept ?
Answer
C. Stroup
3
Section 46 of the Act provides that the State Commission has the power of imposing penalties
not exceeding five thousand rupees on any public servant or authority found guilty while
deciding an appeal or complaint or failing to provide relief recommended by the DRGO,
without reasonable cause or wilfully ignoring the same.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer
A. 1 and
4
An ombudsman will be appointed by each State Government to inquire into complaints
related to the violation of the Act and the provision of health care services.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer
D. 1, 2 and
5
The following major tools, which one used in the practice of social work ?
Answer
C. Use of self
6
When the social work discipline highly professionalized ?
Answer
D. 1930
7
Chronologically order the events in history of social work in England ? a. The Elizabethan-poor law b. Settlement House Movement c. Charity Organization Society d. The Poor Law Commission
Answer
B. a, c, b, d
8
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists : List – I List – II a. Educational service 1. Remedial b. Family counselling service 2. Developmental c. Nutritional service 3. Supportive d. Foster service 4. Substitutive Codes : a b c d
Answer
A. 2 1 3
9
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists : List – I List – II a. Yognas 1. Practice charity b. Brihadaranyaka 2. Social welfare activities c. Chhandogya Upanishad 3. Life is succession d. Sangha 4. Centres of shelters and learnings Codes : a b c d
Answer
B. 2 1 3
10
During the Ashoka, consider the following statements:
1. Superintendents of women (Ithighaka Mahamattas) were appointed to look after the welfare of the women.
2. High commissions of charity (Dhammamahamatas) were appointed for the recording charitable donation by the royal family and regulation of charity.
Answer
A. Both 1 and 2 are correct
11
Social case work is the “Art of changing human attitudes”.
Answer
D. Lee
12
Accurate empathy in case work is a
Answer
B. Sensitive to express feelings
13
Who described the principle of case work relationship ?
Answer
A. Bistek
14
To which principles of casework relationship recognition of client in telling his negative feeling is
Answer
D. Purposeful expression of feeling
15
Who rightly pointed out that “Social Investigation” is a psycho-social process ?
Answer
C. Hamilton
16
Pearlman classify the client by nature of sickness is
Answer
B. Clinical diagnosis
17
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List – I List – II a. Assertive therapy i. Neurotic dysfunction b. Systematic desensitization ii. Punishment c. Impulsive therapy iii. Role play d. Aversion therapy iv. Eliciting anxiety Codes : a b c d
Answer
A. iii iv i ii
18
Which one is not listed by Krill, concept of existential thought in the context of therapy ?
Answer
D. Command
19
Who is the author of book “A changing psychology in social case work” ?
Answer
A. Miss Robinson
20
Assertion
Answer
A. : Home visits establishes really a friendly relationship. Reason
21
The role of group work is the assumptions that regard to basic values dealt by
Answer
D. Coyle
22
The principle of guided group interaction was given by
Answer
B. Trecker
23
Nostalgia is a feeling at ___________ stage of group development.
Answer
D. Separation
24
____________ practice has not emerged schools of social work in India.
Answer
D. Computer-based group work
25
Who used the term “Primary group” ?
Answer
B. Cooley
26
Which group that serve new members at each meeting ?
Answer
C. Single session group
27
Match Author and Theory and select the correct answer from the codes given below : Author Theory a. Freud i. System Theory b. Kurt Lewin ii. Power Dependence Theory c. Talcot Parsons iii. Pychoanalytic Theory d. Emerson iv. Field Theory Codes : a b c d
Answer
A. iii iv i ii
28
According to Douglas classification of group processes, arrange a correct order.
Answer
D. Basic, Structural, Locomotive, Molar
29
The rational model is based upon an ___________ view of decision making.
Answer
B. Economic
30
The worker dealt in group counselling, which of the following domains ? 1. Cognitive 2. Affective 3. Behaviour 4. Ego
Answer
A. 1,2,3
31
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List – I List – II (Feature)
Answer
A. 2 4 1
32
The marriage between social strata, where the women is a member of the upper stratum designated as
Answer
A. Hypogamy
33
Which one of the following is an example of Sanskritisation ?
Answer
D. Sapta-padi the present castes of Karnataka
34
Nayar joint family is known as
Answer
B. Taravad
35
What does structural assimilation refers to ?
Answer
B. Embracing the norms, values and behaviour of dominant cultural group
36
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Answer
B. Talcot Parsons – Positivism
37
Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India states that the claims of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in making appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State ?
Answer
C. Article
38
The haphazard growth of cities often mixing land use in unplanned ways, is most precisely known as
Answer
A. Urban sprawl
39
To which of the following patterns of social change can the process of Sanskritization in India be compared ?
Answer
D. Reference Group Model
40
Low birth rate and pregnancy wastage in the population are primarily due to
Answer
B. Maternal malnutrition
41
Behavioural states in the fetus are assessed using
Answer
D. Eye movements, heart rate pattern and body movements
42
One of the following is not an ethical issue in mental health services
Answer
C. Condoning the behaviour of the patient
43
Identify the one which is not the objective of health education ?
Answer
D. To create fear in people so that they adopt right kind of practices to preserve and promote health
44
According to ICMR, the protein requirement of 0 – 6 months infant is
Answer
B. 1.16 g/kg/d
45
According to Sigmund Freud, what are the two important elements of dreams ?
Answer
B. Manifest content and latent content
46
Legume proteins are deficient in
Answer
A. Sulphur containing amino acids and try
47
One of the following is not the objective of National Health Policy 2017
Answer
C. Encouraging Public Private Partnership in Health Care System
48
One of the following is not the objective/does not fall under the scope of family planning
Answer
D. To advocate late marriages
49
The first Psychiatric Social Worker was appointed in India in
Answer
B. Child Guidance Clinic
50
Match the following related to preventive efforts considered on the lines adopted by health workers : i. Tertiary prevention a. Measures designed in such a way to attack the causative factors (Ex. Providing mental health education to parents so as to make them alter their child rearing practices in favourable manner) ii. Primary prevention b. Measures designed to identify the cases at the earliest and providing treatment (Ex. This process includes case- finding and case-treatment so that later complications can be prevented or reduced) iii. Secondary prevention c. Measures designed to eliminate or at least reduce the deficits that remain after an illness and initiate rehabilitative measures and after-care services (Ex. To find a job, to prevent social isolation, to reduce excessive dependency)
Answer
D. i – c, ii – a, iii – b
51
The personality type characterised by the direction of interest toward oneself and one’s inner world of experiences is known as
Answer
B. Introvert
52
One of the following is not a major professional problem of Medical/Psychiatric Social Workers ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
53
One of the following is not a measure of prevention of mental retardation ?
Answer
A. Delayed marriages
54
The term client is preferred in social case work practice because
Answer
D. The help-seeking person is viewed and valued as a person who is responsible for his own goals and behaviour
55
According to psychoanalytic theory, what is the ‘anal triad’ ?
Answer
A. Orderliness, parsimony and obstinacy
56
When children have an awareness of the world around them and are rapidly developing language skills, they are entering which stage ?
Answer
C. The preoperational
57
Match the following : 1. Endemic a. Disease that affects the people in the most countries 2. Epidemic b. Disease is always present 3. Pandemic c. Large number of cases of a disease that happen at the same time
Answer
A. 1-b,2-c,3-a_
58
Which of the following conflicts did Erikson believe arises during the pre-school stage of development ?
Answer
C. Initiative vs. guilt
59
According to Piaget, the middle childhood years bring a new set of skills, concrete operations, that
Answer
D. Provide general, abstract rules and strategies for examining and interacting with the world
60
What is the leading cause of death among 15 – 19 year old girls ?
Answer
B. Pregnancy and childbirth complications
61
Which of the following does not occur with increasing age ?
Answer
C. An increased appetite
62
Which of the following statements is incorrect about chest X-rays for TB diagnosis ?
Answer
C. Chest X-rays alone is sufficient to diagnose pulmonary TB
63
Which is a typical feature associated with skin patches due to leprosy ?
Answer
A. Loss of sensations over the affected skin
64
UNESCO recognises ‘Early Childhood’ as
Answer
Question Cancelled
65
Which of the following statements is incorrect about the objectives of ministry of AYUSH ?
Answer
D. Providing mental health services to the people in need
66
Which of these factors increases the risk for cancer of the stomach ?
Answer
C. Salt and salt-preserved foods
67
Suicidal ideas are commonly present in the cases of
Answer
D. Depressive neurosis
68
According to the Mental Health Act, 1987 the term ________ is used instead of Mental Hospital.
Answer
Question Cancelled
69
One of the following is not a function of Psychiatric Social Work.
Answer
D. Administering drugs and ECT
70
The severity of head injury is assessed on the basis of
Answer
A. Duration of PTA
71
___________ refers to the period during which maturation of the sexual organs occurs.
Answer
B. Puberty
72
A value of the profession that provides the basis of social work intervention is
Answer
A. Belief in individual’s worth and dignity
73
Which of the following is not main component of the National Mental Health Programme, 1982 ?
Answer
D. Resettlement
74
Which of the following diseases are related to coronavirus ?
Answer
C. Both
75
Which of the following is a core value of social work practice ?
Answer
D. All of the above
76
A client engaged in a therapeutic session is uncomfortable with a case worker because the case worker reminds the client of his father who was very organized. What behaviour is the client exhibiting ?
Answer
A. Transference
77
The National Association of Professional Social Workers India (NAPSWI) general guidelines on professional conduct does not include
Answer
D. Social workers can refer clients to a specialist in return for monetary favours
78
The product of conception in its first eight weeks of its development is __________ and after that stage till the end of pregnancy is ____________
Answer
A. Embryo ; Fetus
79
The sick role of a person, generally, involves five stages. Arrange them in order
Answer
A. Sym
80
One of the following is not a goal of psychotherapy.
Answer
D. To provide ready-made solutions to problems of adjustment of persons
81
According to the recommendations for the nutritional management of patients with diabetes, the consumption of saturated fat should be
Answer
A. < 10% of total daily energy
82
Starch consists of a mixture of two components called
Answer
A. Amylose and amylo-pectin
83
Monozygotic twins are also called as
Answer
B. Identical twins
84
Which of the following are the patterns of pathological family relationship ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
85
The predominant purpose of healthcare services is
Answer
D. To improve the health status of people
86
Obesity is a condition in which the individual is overweight due to deposition of fat in
Answer
A. Adipose tissue
87
One of the following is not true of the functions of psychiatric social worker.
Answer
D. Assuming the primary responsibility for patients care
88
In the family life cycle, the period of ‘Families in the middle years’ is from
Answer
B. Empty nest to retirement
89
Consider the following statements:
1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 replaces the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995.
2. The Act increased the reservation for people with benchmark disabilities from 3% to 5% in government jobs and from 3% to 4% in higher education institutes.
3. The Act provides for five per cent reservation in allotment of agricultural land and housing in all relevant schemes and development programmes, with appropriate priority to women with benchmark disability.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Answer
C. 1 and
90
Consider the following statements:
1. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act allows abortion to be done on the advice of one doctor up to 20 weeks and two doctors in the case of certain categories of women between 20 and 24 weeks.
2. Termination is permitted only when continuance of the pregnancy would involve a risk to the life of the pregnant woman, cause grave injury to her mental or physical health (including rape and failure of birth control measures), or in the case of foetal abnormalities.
3. Termination is also allowed at any point during the pregnancy if there is an immediate necessity to save the child's life.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Answer
A. 1 and
91
Consider the following statements:
1. Any person who puts an advertisement for pre-natal and pre-conception sex determination facilities in the form of a notice, circular, label, wrapper or any document or advertises through interior or other media in electronic or print form or engages in any visible representation made by means of hoarding, wall painting, signal, light, sound, smoke or gas, can be imprisoned for upto three years and fined Rs. 10,000.
2. The Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act of 1994 was Amended in 2020 to bring the technique of pre-conception sex selection and ultrasound technique within the ambit of the Act.
3. Maharashtra is the first state to ban pre-natal sex determination through enacting the Maharashtra Regulation of Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques Act.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Answer
C. 1 and
92
Consider the following statements:
1. The NDPS Act is designed to fulfil India's treaty obligations under the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, Convention on Psychotropic Substances and United Nations Convention Against Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances.
2. Section 37(1) of the NDPS Act states that an accused is not to be released on bail unless the court has a reasonable ground to believe that the said accused is not guilty.
3. Under Section 37 of the NDPS Act, the burden is on the prosecution to show the existence of reasonable grounds for believing that the accused is guilty.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Answer
A. 1 and
93
With reference to the HIV and AIDS (Prevention and Control) Act, 2017, consider the following statements:
1. The Government of India enacted the HIV and AIDS (Prevention and Control) Act under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in the year 2017 and was in force in 2018.
2. HIV and AIDS (Prevention and Control) Act maintain that without the consent of the person, no one can conduct any HIV tests or treatment related to HIV.
3. The person won't be under any compulsion to disclose his/her HIV status except when required the State Government.
4. An ombudsman will be appointed by each State Government to inquire into complaints related to the violation of the Act and the provision of health care services.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Answer
D. 1, 2 and
94
With reference to Right to Constitutional Remedies guaranteed under Article 32, consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution.
2. Fundamental Rights and other Statutory Rights can be enforced under Article 32.
3. Article 32 cannot be invoked to determine the constitutionality of an executive order or a legislation unless it directly infringes on any Fundamental Rights.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Answer
B. 2 only
95
With reference to the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:
1. The beneficiary Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) household is entitled to 35 Kg of food grains per month while each Priority Households (PHH) person is entitled to 5 Kg of food grains per month under the National Food Security Act.
2. Pregnant women, lactating mothers and children in the age group of 6 months to 14 years will be entitled to meals as per prescribed nutritional norms under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Mid-Day Meal (MDM) Schemes.
3. Section 46 of the Act provides that the State Commission has the power of imposing penalties not exceeding five thousand rupees on any public servant or authority found guilty while deciding an appeal or complaint or failing to provide relief recommended by the DRGO, without reasonable cause or wilfully ignoring the same.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Answer
A. 1 and
96
Consider the following statements:
1. The Biomedical waste means any waste, which is generated during the diagnosis, treatment or immunization of human beings or animals or in research activities pertaining thereto or in the production or testing of biological and including categories mentioned in Schedule I of the Rules.
2. Every occupier/operator of an institution shall submit an annual report to the prescribed authority in Form II by 31 January every year, to include information about the categories and quantities of biomedical wastes handled during the preceding year.
3. For violating the provisions of these Rules, the Board can file a complaint under Section 15 of EP Act which provide for imprisonment which may extend upto 5 years with fine.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Answer
D. 1, 2 and
97
Consider the following statements:
1. The Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994 legalises the buying and selling of human organs and makes cash-for-kidney transactions a criminal offence.
2. The Act defines brain death as an accepted form of death. The Act also defines the process and the criteria meant to be used for the purpose of brain death certification.
3. All non-governmental organizations, trusts and registered societies working for organ and/or tissue removal, transplantation or storage needs to be registered to work in such industries.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Answer
B. 2 and
98
With reference to the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948, consider the following statements:
1. ESI is applicable when any organization employs 50 or more persons. This is regardless of the legal form of the entity. Be it a Limited Liability Company, LLP, Partnership Firm, Proprietorship, Trust, Society, etc.
2. The registration of a factory/establishment with the Employees' State Insurance Corporation is a statutory responsibility of the employer under Section 2-A of the Act, read with Regulation 10-B.
3. Cash benefits payable under the Employees' State Insurance Act are not liable to attachment or sale in execution of any court decree or order. Also, the right to receive any benefit is not transferable or assignable.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Answer
B. 2 and
99
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Sections of the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948): a. Section 3; b. Section 8; c. Section 10; d. Section 45.
List II (Contents): 1. Constitution of Medical Benefit Council; 2. Establishment of Employees' State Insurance Corporation; 3. Appointment of Social Security Officers; 4. Constitution of Standing Committee; 5. Constitution of Employees' Insurance Court.
Codes (a, b, c, d):
Answer
B. 2, 4, 1,
100
With reference to the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, consider the following statements:
1. "Children" according to the Act are individuals aged below 16 years.
2. Section 42 A of the Act provides that in case of inconsistency with provisions of any other law, the POCSO Act shall override such provisions.
3. The Act calls for mandatory reporting of sexual offences. A false complaint with intent to defame a person is punishable under the Act.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Answer
B. 2 and
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet — start the discussion.