| Post Name | Staff Nurse Grade II (SR for SC/ST & ST only) |
|---|---|
| Department | Health Services |
| Question Paper Code | 038/2021 |
| Category Code | 250/2020 |
| Date of Test | 9 July 2021 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Choose the correct statement.
Answer
B. Angiotensin I is physiologically inactive.
2
The axillary tail of mammary gland is known as
Answer
D. Tail of spence
3
The following are the major blood vessels which supply liver except
Answer
A. Porta hepatis artery
4
The anterior end of the corpus callosum is known as
Answer
B. The genu
5
Which is the largest branch of brachial plexus ?
Answer
C. Radial nerve
6
Free living microbes that live on dead or decaying organic matter are known as
Answer
B. Saprophytes
7
Bacteria with a tuft of flagella at one end are called
Answer
A. Lophotrichous
8
Biohazard symbols on a specimen represent
Answer
D. Suspected of having highly contagious diseases
9
The characteristics present on a primary social group is
Answer
C. Physical proximity
10
The process by which social order is established and maintained is called
Answer
A. Social control
11
Which statement is correct about cognitive dissonance ?
Answer
A. A theory of attitude change developed by Festinger.
12
According to Freudian psychology,
Answer
C. All the energy used for performing the work of personality is obtained from
unconscious instincts
13
Which psychological theory explains about the ‘‘Schizoparanoid position’’, as part of
psychological development ?
Answer
D. Object relation theory
14
Which is not a correct statement about stress ?
Answer
D. According to Lazarus and Folkman, in primary appraisal of an event,
benign-positive outcome is one that holds no significance for the individual.
15
Preventing unacceptable or undesirable thoughts or behaviors from being expressed
by exaggerating opposite thoughts or types of behaviors is termed as
Answer
B. Reaction formation
16
Ego-ideal and the conscience are two important components of
Answer
C. Super-ego
17
Emile Durkheim (1951) studied the individual’s interaction with the society in which he
or she lived and described three social categories of suicide. Which of the following
term is not included in his theory ?
Answer
B. Societic suicide
18
“I make this choice because it is morally right and my duty to do so.” This statement
is an example of
Answer
B. Kantianism
19
Which is not an ego defense mechanism ?
Answer
B. Obsession
20
Consistent individual differences in behavior that are biologically based and are
relatively independent of learning, system of values and attitudes is
Answer
C. Temperament
21
What is the origin of the serotonin pathways in the brain stem ?
Answer
C. Raphe nuclei
22
Euphoria, lethargy, somnolence, apathy, dysphoria, impaired judgment, pupillary
constriction, drowsiness, slurred speech, constipation, nausea, decreased respiratory
rate and blood pressure are the intoxication features of which substance ?
Answer
A. Opioids
23
What is the most suitable nursing diagnosis for a person who has abuse of alcohol
and cannabis, destructive behavior toward others and self, inability to meet basic
needs, inability to meet role expectations, risk taking behaviours ?
Answer
C. Ineffective coping
24
Which of the following statements is/are correct about schizophrenia ?
i. Autochthonous delusions are characteristic of schizophrenia.
ii. Ambivalence is a symptom under Schneider’s First Rank Symptoms of
schizophrenia.
iii. Third person hallucinations’ are considered to be characteristic of
schizophrenia.
iv. Tardive dyskinesia is a clinical feature schizophrenia.
Answer
A. i and iii
25
Which is/are the correct statement/s related to cognitive psychotherapy ?
i. In CBT, patient monitor his or her negative, automatic thoughts.
ii. CBT is based on psychoanalysis.
iii. Free association and abreaction are the techniques used in CBT.
iv. Learn to identify and alter the dysfunctional beliefs.
Answer
B. i and iv
26
Paralysis of the ocular muscles, diplopia, ataxia, somnolence and stupor are
characteristic features of
Answer
D. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
27
Criteria for Substance Dependence include all, except
Answer
D. Development of motivation to quit the behaviour
28
A delusion of misidentification, characterized by a person’s delusional belief that an
acquaintance, usually a spouse or other close family member, has been replaced
by an identical looking impostor or several doubles
Answer
B. Capgras syndrome
29
Which of the following concept is related to Peplau’s conceptual model ?
Answer
C. A therapeutic or “helping” relationship is established through use of these
interpersonal techniques and is based on a knowledge of theories of
personality development and human behavior.
30
Which of the following drug is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor ?
Answer
A. Tranylcypromine
31
A low pitched rattling sound resembling snoring, heard on auscultation over bronchus
is termed as
Answer
B. Rhonchi
32
Hypoventilation can lead to
Answer
C. Respiratory acidosis
33
Normal pH range of blood is
Answer
A. 7.35 – 7.45
34
The most preferred site for Intramuscular injection in infants
Answer
B. Vastus lateralis
35
Exercises that strengthen muscles and do not require joint movement are called
Answer
B. Isometric
36
Protecting the rights of client by doing no harm or preventing harm is called
Answer
C. Non-maleficence
37
Hyper resonance during percussion of the lung fields indicate
Answer
C. Pneumothorax
38
The compression ventilation ratio while performing single rescuer adult CPR is
Answer
D. 30 : 2
39
First aid measure for sprain
Answer
B. Rest, Ice, Compression and Elevation
40
Which colour coded container should be used to discard cytotoxic waste ?
Answer
A. Yellow
41
Diet that promotes healing of gastric mucosa is called
Answer
B. Bland diet
42
A patient with Buck’s traction for a fractured hip has an order for low molecular weight
heparin subcutaneously. This is indicated for
Answer
C. Preventing DVT
43
The most potential danger of agranulocytosis that occur due to side effects of
medications is
Answer
B. Susceptibility to infection
44
Romberg’s test is used to assess
Answer
A. Ataxia
45
Temporary period of normality in a patient’s neurological status following head injury
is called
Answer
C. Lucid interval
46
Cardiac glycosides are drugs used to
Answer
C. Maintain normal heart rate and rhythm
47
While caring a patient suspected for DVT, the nurse should not
Answer
C. Massage or exercise affected limits
48
The collapse of the alveoli due to obstruction or hypoventilation is called
Answer
C. Atelectasis
49
Which among the following breathing exercise is most beneficial for a patient with
COPD ?
Answer
C. Pursed lip breathing
50
A contagious disease caused by Treponema pallidum by intimate contact or in utero
transmission is
Answer
D. Syphilis
51
The mode of transmission of Japanese encephalitis is
Answer
B. Bite of infected mosquitoes
52
The open vial policy is applied to all vaccines except
Answer
A. Measles vaccine
53
The classic triad of congenital rubella syndrome includes except
Answer
D. Polydactyly
54
The number of new cases occurring in a defined population during a specified period
of time is
Answer
C. Incidence
55
The natural family planning methods include except
Answer
A. Menstrual regulation method
56
Visual inspection with 5% acetic acid (VIA) is a screening test for
Answer
C. Cervical cancer
57
The continuous scrutiny of the factors that determine the occurrence and distribution
of disease is
Answer
B. Surveillance
58
Haemorrhagic diseases in new borns is prevented by the administration of
Answer
A. Vitamin K
59
The Body Mass Index is measured by
Weight
Answer
D. A) B) C) D)
2
Height (cm ) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Height (m2 )
60
Egg contains all the nutrients except
Answer
D. Vitamin C
61
The clinical types of protein energy malnutrition according to Wellcome trust
classification is
Answer
A. Underweight, Kwashiorkor, Marasmus, Marasmic kwashiorkor
62
Progressive non-bilious vomiting, after feeding in the neonatal period is a classical
finding in
Answer
D. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
63
The major complication that may develop during the acute phase of Glomerulonephritis
Answer
B. Hypertensive encephalopathy
64
A congenital heart defect in which, the blood pressure in the legs is much lower than
the blood pressure in the right arm
Answer
B. Coarctation of aorta
65
If a child with sickle cell disease present with reticulocytopenia, the first consideration
should be given to, infection with
Answer
A. Human parvo virus B – 19
66
According to Jean Piaget, the cognitive developmental stage of a pre-schooler is
Answer
A. Pre-operational
67
The blood studies of a child with maple syrup urine disease shows
Answer
C. Elevated level of valine
68
Scoliosis is a condition characterized by
Answer
B. Lateral curvature of spine
69
A disorder in which there is problem with reading despite normal intelligence is
Answer
D. Dyslexia
70
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Baby Friendly Hospital Initiative ?
i. Hospital should have a written breast feeding policy.
ii. Initiate breast feeding within four hours of birth.
iii. Encourage breast feeding on demand.
Answer
B. Only i and iii
71
Presence of gas in the foetal large vessels is known as
Answer
A. Robert’s sign
72
Which of the following foetal factor is a cause for Oligohydramnios ?
Answer
C. Renal agenesis
73
Which of the Antituberculous drug is contraindicated in pregnancy ?
Answer
B. Streptomycin
74
In pelvic organ prolapse laxity of lower third of anterior vaginal wall results in
Answer
A. Urethrocele
75
In Assisted Reproductive Technology, which drug is used for ovulation induction ?
Answer
C. Clomiphine citrate
76
Oval shaped brim is characteristic of which pelvis ?
Answer
B. Anthropoid pelvis
77
Which of the following statement is false regarding assisted breech delivery ?
Answer
A. Keep baby’s back always posterior
78
During uterine contraction, the upper pole contracts and retracts while lower pole
contracts and dilates. This co-ordination between the upper and lower pole of the
uterus is termed as
Answer
D. Polarity
79
Moulding of foetal skull ++ and vertex at +2 station in a partogram indicates
Answer
B. Overlapping of skull bones, but reducible and vertex 2 cm below the ischial
spines
80
Fundus of the uterus is palpated at the level of umbilicus at which weeks of pregnancy ?
Answer
B. 24th
81
The most important goal for conducting nursing research
Answer
B. Promote evidence based nursing practice
82
Which form of reasoning proceeds from general to specific ?
Answer
A. Deductive reasoning
83
“By education I mean all round drawing out of the best in child and man – body, mind
and spirit.” These are the words of
Answer
D. Mahatma Gandhi
84
Which among the following is the best example for self paced learning method ?
Answer
C. Programmed instruction
85
Which among the following is not a measure of dispersion ?
Answer
A. Mode
86
Sampling error can be minimised by
Answer
C. Selecting large sample based on random sampling
87
____________ technique uses several rounds of questions to seek consensus on
a particular topic from a group of experts.
Answer
D. Delphi technique
88
____________ is the plan of how the research study will be conducted.
Answer
B. Research design
89
__________ occurs when study participants respond in a certain manner because
they are aware that they are being observed.
Answer
C. Hawthorne effect
90
The type of reliability which addresses the extent to which all the items in an instrument
measures the same variable
Answer
A. Internal consistency
91
Example of a single use plan
Answer
B. Programme
92
Civil wrong committed by one person against another
Answer
D. Tort
93
Select an ‘on the job’ training method.
Answer
A. Job rotation
94
Most preferred leadership style in recent times
Answer
C. Transformational
95
Fidelity means
Answer
B. Striving to keep promises
96
The number of sub-ordinates, a supervisor can effectively supervise is referred to as
Answer
D. Span of control
97
Statement of organisation’s long term aspiration
Answer
A. Vision
98
Consumable items are generally termed as
Answer
B. Supplies
99
An inventory management technique based on criticality of item
Answer
C. VED analysis
100
Primary health centres were developed in India under the recommendation of
Answer
B. Bhore Committee
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