Skip to content
10th Level - Practice App Completely Free · 100K+ Users Install

Kerala PSC Supervisor (ICDS) – Women & Child Development Previous Question Paper – 016/2025/OL

Practice Mode

Sit all 99 questions full screen, one at a time. Sign in and your score, your time and where you got to are kept — put it down here and finish it on your phone.

Sign in to practise
Post NameSupervisor (ICDS) - Women & Child Development
Question Paper Code016/2025/OL
Category Code253/2024
Date of Test13 February 2025
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
A family where two previously divorced or widowed individuals with children marry or cohabitate is called a _______
Answer
C. Blended Family
2
The process by which an individual learns and internalizes the values, beliefs, and norms of a culture is called _______
Answer
A. Enculturation
3
Which of the following is an example of secondary socialization?
Answer
C. A child learning societal gender norms through media and peer groups
4
Which of the following best defines a polymorous family?
Answer
D. A family where one or both partners have consensual relationship with multiple people
5
Assertion (A) : Domestic violence laws often aim to protect victims regardless of gender Reason (R) : Patriarchal structures are the sole contributors to domestic violence.
Answer
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
6
Which of the following is NOT a direct social consequence of alcoholism?
Answer
B. Increase in community cohesion
7
Which provision of Indian law empowers the court to presume abetment of suicide in cases of dowry harassment?
Answer
A. Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act
8
In 2022, India introduced a first-of-its-kind scheme aimed specifically at the employment of transgender individuals. Which state launched this initiative?
Answer
B. Kerala
9
Which global initiative has most significantly influenced the development of elderly care policies in developing countries?
Answer
B. The world Health Organization's Global Strategy and Action Plan on Ageing and Health (2016)
10
Assertion (A) : Globalization has led to an increase in child labour in certain industries in developing countries Reason (R) :Globalization often leads to an increased demand for cheap labour, which exploits vulnerable children in low-wage sectors.
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
11
Which of the following statements about greenhouse gases is/are correct? i. The term greenhouse gases refer to the atmospheric gases that absorb the spectrum and emit them back within the thermal range of infrared radiation. ii. These gases can significantly affect the global temperature iii. The temperature of the Earth's surface would have been almost 59° Fahrenheit colder than the present temperature in the presence of these gases options
Answer
C. both i and ii are correct
12
Efficient consumerism can be achieved by : i. Product standards may be verified before buying from market ii. Waste minimization techniques can be adopted iii. Recycling and proper disposal of waste materials can be done iv. Enactment and implementation of strict legislation
Answer
D. all are correct
13
Which is the Indian labour law and social security measure that aims to guarantee the right to work?
Answer
A. MGNREGA 2005
14
What is the key difference between resettlement and rehabilitation in the context of displaced persons and project-affected persons?
Answer
B. Resettlement focuses on one-time relocation, while rehabilitation focuses on rebuilding livelihoods and addressing socio-cultural aspects
15
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Self-Help Group (SHG) programme? i. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived ii. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes
Answer
C. only ii
16
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List I List II 1. B.R. Mehta Committee A. 73rd Amendment Act 2. Ashok Mehta Committee B. Two tier system 3. Panchayath Raj Institutions C. Central Finance Commission 4. Article 243 (1) D. Three Tier System
Answer
A. 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
17
Assertion (A) : Education is the most effective tool to reduce gender discrimination in society Reason (R) : Educating women improves their employability, increases decision- making power and reduces dependence
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
18
What is a significant barrier to women's participation in political processes?
Answer
C. Financial dependence and unequal access to resources
19
Match the international conventions with their focus areas related to women in governance Conventions/Treaties Focus Areas 1. CEDAW A. 1993 2. Beijing Declaration B. International human rights treaty 3. UNSCR 1325 C. Women, Peace and Security Agenda 4. Vienna Declaration D. Global agenda for gender equality
Answer
A. 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
20
Which of the following was not recommended by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act regarding Panchayati Raj? i. 33% seats will be reserved for women candidates at all levels in all elected rural bodies ii. States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj institutions iii. The act establishes a two-tier structure for panchayaths.
Answer
D. only iii
21
Which of the following is true about structured interviews? i. All interviewees receive the same context of questioning ii. Interviewers strictly follow the order and working of questions. iii. Questions are usually open-ended and allow for flexible responses iv. Structured interviews are commonly used in survey research
Answer
D. only (i, ii and iv)
22
One of the advantages of self-completion questionnaires over structured interviews is that :
Answer
A. They are quicker and cheaper to administer
23
Assertion (A) : Closed questions are easier and quicker for interviewers and respondents to complete Reason (R) : In closed questions, respondents are not required to write extensively but instead select or circle predefined answers
Answer
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
24
Match the following methods with their specific features Column A (Methods) Column B (Specific Features) 1. Case Study A. Requires direct interaction in participants' natural environment 2. Focus Group Discussion B. Relies on firsthand data collected directly from individuals or groups 3. Participant Observation C. Examines a single case or phenomenon in great detail over a period of time 4. Primary Data D. Uses guided group interaction to gather perceptions and opinions
Answer
A. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
25
Which of the following terms best describes systematic walks with key informants through the area of interest, observing land and water use, and seeking problems and solutions?
Answer
D. Transect walk
26
Which of the following is considered the earliest organized social welfare effort?
Answer
B. Elizabethan Poor Laws
27
Social work and social service differ in
Answer
B. The need for professional training
28
Which value is most critical when a social worker intervenes in a case of child abuse?
Answer
D. Non-maleficence
29
Which statement is TRUE about the relationship between IFSW and IASSW? I. Both organizations focus exclusively on practitioner development II. IFSW represents practitioners, while IASSW focuses on educators and researchers III. IASSW is a subset of IFSW. IV. Both organizations are responsible for accrediting social work degress globally
Answer
B. only (ii)
30
Which of the following is an example of "Engage in practice-informed research"?
Answer
D. Using client feedback to improve service delivery methods
31
During the exploration phase of social case work, a common challenge is
Answer
D. Establishing a professional yet empathetic client-worker relationship
32
In social case work, self-determination can conflict with which of the following principles?
Answer
B. Beneficence when a client's decision may lead to self-harm
33
Why is empathy considered a transformative skill in social case work?
Answer
B. It bridges the power imbalance between the worker and client by promoting mutual understanding
34
Which principle is critical during the initial phase of group formation?
Answer
A. Respect for individuality
35
Which factor best indicates active participation in a therapeutic group?
Answer
B. Voluntary sharing of experiences
36
Which feedback type is most effective in encouraging behavior change within a group setting?
Answer
B. Constructive feedback with specific examples
37
In the process of community organization, which of the following is correct sequential flow of roles played by a community organizer to ensure that a community is empowered effectively?
Answer
A. Building rapport → Assessing community needs → Developing strategies → Mobilizing community participation → Evaluating progress
38
Match the community development strategy with the theorist who advocated for it. Strategies Theorists 1. Empowerment through Education A. Paul Freire 2. Mobilizing Resources for change B. Saul Alinsky 3. Direct Action for justice C. Mary Parker Follett 4. Participatory leadership D. Jim Ife 5. Conflict and Cooperation Balance E. Jack Rothman Options :
Answer
C. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-E, 5-D
39
Which of the following best describes social welfare?
Answer
B. A system focused on the collective well-being and needs of individuals and communities
40
The first step in the process of social welfare administration is
Answer
C. Assessing community needs
41
Social welfare programs should be designed to
Answer
B. Provide long-term solutions to societal issues
42
Which of the following is the role of a social action group?
Answer
A. Advocate for social change and challenge the status quo
43
Which theory focuses on the idea that social action arises from the meanings individuals attach to their actions and social interactions?
Answer
B. Symbolic interactionism
44
Which type of sampling involves dividing the population into distinct subgroups and selecting a random sample from each subgroup?
Answer
B. Stratified Sampling
45
Which of the following is used to measure the spread or dispersion of data in a dataset?
Answer
B. Standard deviation
46
Which of the following is the primary purpose of performing an ANOVA test?
Answer
A. Compare the means of two or more groups
47
What is the primary function of the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB)?
Answer
A. Conduct judicial proceedings for children in conflict with law
48
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the District Child Protection Unit (DCPU)?
Answer
C. Conducting juvenile justice hearings
49
What is the focus of the KAVAL PLUS scheme?
Answer
C. Provide protective services to children at risk
50
Which ministry is responsible for the implementation of POSHAN ABHIYAN in India?
Answer
A. Ministry of Women and Child Development
51
Selective attention is also known as i. Endogenous attention ii. Goal-driven attention iii. Volitional attention iv. Executive attention
Answer
A. All of the above
52
Driving a car and talking to a passenger at the same time is an example of
Answer
D. Divided Attention
53
Which of the following statement is correct?
Answer
B. Sensation is bottom up approach while perception is top down approach
54
When we look at the Olympic logo, we see overlapping circles rather than the assortment of curved, connected lines. The underlying law is
Answer
B. Law of Pragnanz
55
The distinct memory stores in the brain according to Atkinson and Shiffrin are :
Answer
D. Sensory memory, Short-term memory and Long-term memory
56
Which of the following are correct about WMS i. Anyone ages 16 to 90 is eligible to take this test. ii. The fourth edition (WMS-IV) has been published in 2019 iii. WMS was first published in 1945
Answer
C. i and iii are correct
57
The five stages that people follow during the creative process as outlined by Graham Wallace are :
Answer
D. (i) Preparation (ii) Incubation (iii) Illumination and (iv) Verification
58
The five kinds of contents as per the SOI model are :
Answer
C. Behavioural, Visual, Symbolic, Semantic and Auditory
59
The first step in problem solving is
Answer
B. Defining the problem
60
Statements : i. All tigers are mammals ii. Some mammals are carnivores. Conclusion : I. Some tigers are carnivores. II. All carnivores are tigers.
Answer
D. Neither conclusion I nor II is correct
61
Which of the following is/are intrinsic motivation? i. Participating in sports competition by own initiation ii. A person dancing for health benefits iii. A child riding cycle iv. Self-study for examination v. Reading for general knowledge
Answer
D. iii only
62
Which of the following is true as per the James-Lange Theory of emotion?
Answer
A. Physiological responses occur first and they play a major role in the experience of emotion
63
In classical conditioning, what does the conditioned response (CR) refer to?
Answer
B. The learned response to a conditioned stimulus
64
Higher-order conditioning occurs when :
Answer
A. A neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus by being paired with an existing conditioned stimulus
65
Which of the following best illustrates the principle of behavioral contrast in operant conditioning?
Answer
B. A child is given a cookie for finishing their homework early, but their homework performance decreases when the reward is stopped
66
When using positive reinforcement, which of the following is most important for ensuring that the reinforcement is effective?
Answer
C. The reinforcement should immediately follow the desired behavior
67
According to Allport, which of the following best describes the functional autonomy of motives?
Answer
D. Motives that, once established, are no longer influenced by their original causes
68
Carl Rogers suggested that the primary task of therapy is
Answer
B. To help the client develop a more realistic understanding of themselves by promoting congruence
69
In Erikson's Trust vs. Mistrust stage, which of the following is considered crucial for the development of trust?
Answer
D. The consistent and reliable care provided by caregivers
70
In Bandura's self-system, cognitive processes are important because they
Answer
B. Serve as the primary mechanism through which people adapt to social environments and influence their actions
71
In a workplace, Sonia notices that her colleague, Hari frequently arrives late to meetings. Sonia attributes Hari's lateness to his personal laziness and lack of commitment. However, Sonia later learns that Hari has been dealing with health issues, which have caused him to be late. According to Attribution Theory, Sonia's initial attribution of Hari's behavior is most likely an example of :
Answer
A. Fundamental Attribution Error
72
Justin has always considered himself an environmentally conscious person, frequently recycling and minimizing his carbon footprint. However, when he bought a new car, he chose a model that is known to have high fuel consumption and low environmental efficiency. Justin experiences discomfort about his choice because it conflicts with his prior self-image as an eco-friendly person. According to Cognitive Dissonance Theory, how is Justin likely to reduce the dissonance he is feeling?
Answer
D. He will justify his decision by telling himself that the new car is necessary for his job
73
A researcher is studying the effectiveness of a new intervention designed to improve communication skills in children with Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD). The intervention focuses on using visual aids, such as picture cards, to help children express their needs. Some parents report improvements in their children's communication, while others see no change. What is the most likely explanation for these differing outcomes?
Answer
B. The intervention may be more effective for children with lower levels of language development or those who are more visually oriented
74
A patient with schizophrenia exhibits a complete lack of motivation, diminished emotional expression, and an inability to complete daily tasks. Which symptom domain is primarily involved here?
Answer
C. Negative symptoms
75
Which of the following is a distinguishing feature between generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and panic disorder?
Answer
D. GAD involves persistent, excessive worry about a variety of topics, while panic disorder is marked by sudden, recurrent episodes of intense fear or discomfort
76
Which stage of child development is characterized by rapid physical growth and motor skill development?
Answer
A. Infancy
77
Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing child development?
Answer
D. Seasonal weather patterns
78
According to Jean Piaget's theory, which stage involves the development of object permanence?
Answer
C. Sensorimotor stage
79
What is one major principle of Erik Erikson's psychosocial development theory?
Answer
B. Each stage involves a conflict that must be resolved
80
How does play contribute to a child's cognitive development?
Answer
B. It helps build problem-solving and critical thinking skills
81
Which of the following is a benefit of early childhood education?
Answer
B. Promotes lifelong learning habits
82
What type of play involves children engaging in imaginary roles or scenarios?
Answer
C. Pretend play
83
Which theorist proposed the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) as a key element in learning?
Answer
B. Lev Vygotsky
84
What is a critical period in child development
Answer
B. A time frame when certain skills are most easily learned
85
Which environmental factor has the most significant impact on child development?
Answer
C. Quality of parental interaction
86
What role does outdoor play have in child development
Answer
B. It helps develop gross motor skills and reduces stress
87
Why is early intervention important for children with developmental delays?
Answer
A. It reduces the need for lifelong support services
88
What is the recommended intake of cereals and millets for indian pregnant women
Answer
A. 220g
89
What is the additional requirement for folate for lactating women
Answer
Question Cancelled
90
1000 days of life given priority in health interventions are
Answer
A. upto 2 years
91
_________ supplements are a new treatment for diarrhoea to be given always in addition to ORS
Answer
D. Zinc
92
Infants born to ________ deficient mothers will develop cretinism and stunted growth
Answer
D. Iodine
93
A stunted child has a height for age Z score that is atleast _________ SD below median in the WHO growth chart
Answer
A. 2
94
The beneficiaries of SUMAN intervention are
Answer
B. Mothers
95
'Laqshya' initiative aims to improve
Answer
D. Labour rooms
96
Regarding early childhood care and education, which of the following is not a key principle fo the National Education Policy 2020?
Answer
A. Rigid curriculum
97
Which theorist is most closely associated with the concept of "Scaffolding"?
Answer
C. Lev Vygotsky
98
Which of the following is not a crucial factor in creating a high-quality early childhood education program?
Answer
D. A rigid and structured environment that emphasizes academic achievement from a very young age
99
How can preschools in India best promote inclusive education?
Answer
B. Providing individualized education plans for all children
100
Which of the following is not a core responsibility of a preschool supervisor in Kerala?
Answer
B. Providing direct instruction to children in the classroom

Related reading

Discussion

Ask a doubt or share a tip.

No comments yet — start the discussion.

Leave a comment

Your email address and number are never published. Required fields are marked

We will email you a code to confirm the address. Posting creates a PSCNET account if you do not have one.

By posting, you agree to our Privacy Policy.