| Post Name | SYSTEM ANALYST / PROGRAMMER - KERALA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 017/2019/OL |
| Category Code | 021/2018 |
| Date of Test | 25 May 2019 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which among the following is not a fundamental right?
Answer
D. Right to acquire wealth
2
The union list given in __________ schedule of Indian Constitution.
Answer
C. 7th schedule
3
The objective of Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana is _________
Answer
A. Skill training to youth
4
Who among the following is not related to 'Mappilapattu'?
Answer
B. Edarikkode Alikutty Kurikkal
5
Who won the 'Man Booker Prize 2018'?
Answer
A. Anna Burns
6
Who was the Indian flag bearer of 2018 common wealth games closing ceremony?
Answer
D. Mary Kom
7
Who is the author of 'Aarachaar'?
Answer
C. K.R. Meera
8
Who is the author of 'Muslim Janavum Vidyabhyasavum' (Muslims and Education)
Answer
B. Makthi Thangal
9
Name the Malayali woman congress leader imprisoned along with her two month old baby during civil disobedience movement
Answer
A. Kuttimalu Amma
10
How many people signed in Ezhava memorial?
Answer
D. 13176
11
Who started the daily 'Paschimodayam'?
Answer
B. Hermen Gundert
12
Who is the founder of 'Samatwa Samajam'?
Answer
C. Vaikunda Swamikal
13
Who was the first signatory of 'Malayali Memorial'?
Answer
A. K.P. Sankara Menon
14
Mampuram Thangal came to India from _______
Answer
B. Yemen
15
Who is the lone dissenter of Sabarimala temple women entry verdict of supreme court?
Answer
D. Indu Malhothra
16
Who issued temple entry proclamation?
Answer
C. Sri Chithira Thirunal
17
Which among the following was 'Melmundu Samaram'?
Answer
D. Shanar Agitation
18
Who is known as the father of library movement in Kerala?
Answer
C. P.N. Panikkar
19
Who is the author of the drama, 'Koottukrishi'?
Answer
B. Edasseri Govindan Nair
20
Who among the following is not included modern Triumvirate of Malayalam poetry?
Answer
A. Cherusseri
21
Let A, B and C are three finite sets. Find |A| if |A| = |B|, |AuuB| = 2a + 3b, and |AnnB| = b
Answer
A. a+2b
22
Let X = {2, 3, 6, 12, 24, 48}, and ≤ be the partial order defined by X ≤ Y if X divides Y. Number of edges in the Hasse diagram of (X, ≤) is
Answer
C. 5
23
A box contains 8 red and 6 yellow balls. The probability of drawing two balls of the same colour is
Answer
C. 43/91
24
A die is tossed. If the number is odd, what is the probability that the number is prime?
Answer
B. 2/3
25
Let P(K)=1+3+5....+(2K-1)=3+K² . Then which of the following is true?
Answer
C. P(k) implies P(k+1)
26
Three bags P, Q and R contains 20%, 40% and 40% of the total eggs produced in an industry. Past experience shows that 5%, 4% and 2% of the eggs contained in the respective bags are defective. If an egg was found to be defective, what is the the probability that the egg was from the bag P?
Answer
C. 10/34
27
For the set {1, 2, 3, 4}, which of the following is true for the relation R = {(1,3), (1,4), (2,3),(2,4), (3,1), (4,1), (4,2), (3,4), (3,2)}
Answer
D. None of the above
28
A correlation coefficient of 1 means that
Answer
A. For every positive increase in one variable, there is a positive increase in a fixed proportion of the other variable
29
Multiple regression is used
Answer
C. To predict scores on an dependent variable from scores on multiple independent variables
30
Which of the following is not true when conducting multiple regression?
Answer
B. Data must be heterogeneous for a multiple regression
31
As compared to TTL, CMOS logic has
Answer
C. Smaller physical size
32
Pin 21 of 8086 microprocessor is used for the signal
Answer
C. RESET
33
Assume that the following jobs are to be executed on a single processor system Job identifier CPU-Burst Time P1 4 P2 1 P3 8 P4 1 P5 2 The jobs are assumed to have arrived at time 0 and in the order P1, P2, P3, P4, P5. Calculate the departure completion time for job P1 if scheduling is round robin with time slice 1.
Answer
D. 11
34
The Banker's algorithm is used
Answer
C. To avoid deadlock in operating systems
35
The performance of a digital computer improves when its RAM size increases. This is because
Answer
B. Number of page faults are less
36
Multiplier Quotient register is placed in
Answer
B. CPU
37
Which of the following is/are not true in contiguous allocation of disk space
Answer
B. There is no external fragmentation
38
Interrupt latency for real time OS should be
Answer
C. Minimal
39
Which of the following is an invalid shell variables?
Answer
C. 15_india
40
The output of the following shell programming is var_1 = good Readonly var_1 var_1= morning echo $var_1 exit 0
Answer
C. program will generate an error message
41
The time complexity of building a heap with 'n' elements is
Answer
A. O(n)
42
Which of the following is false regarding AVL trees?
Answer
B. AVL tree is more space efficient than binary search tree
43
What is the worst case complexity of quicksort?
Answer
C. O(n²)
44
Which data structure can be used to efficiently implement dijkstra's algorithm?
Answer
B. Priority queue
45
Which data structure is well suited for separate chaining?
Answer
B. Doubly linked list
46
In the following code, how many times the program will print "Hello"? #include int main() { printf("Hello"); main(); return 0; }
Answer
D. till stack overflows
47
What will be output if you will compile and execute the following c code? #include "string.h" void main() { printf("%d%d",sizeof("program"),strlen("program")); getch(); }
Answer
A. 8 7
48
Predict the outputs of following C program. int main() { int x = -20; while (x++ !=1); printf("%d", x); return 0; }
Answer
A. 2
49
What is the return type of malloc()?
Answer
A. void*
50
What does the following declaration mean? int (*ptr)[20];
Answer
B. ptr is a pointer to an array of 20 integers
51
If class C is derived from another class B which is derived from class A, which class will have minimum level of abstraction?
Answer
C. Class C
52
Which of the following statement is false?
Answer
C. An abstract class can contain only Abstract method
53
Which is the necessary condition for virtual function to achieve late binding?
Answer
C. Virtual function is to be accessed using pointer or reference
54
Operator overloading is
Answer
D. All the above
55
What are all the operators that cannot be overloaded?
Answer
D. Both 1 and 2
56
Which two of the following methods are defined in class Thread?
Answer
B. Start and run
57
Which of these class object cannot be used to form a dynamic array in JAVA?
Answer
B. Map
58
Predict the output of the following code public class Check { public static void main(String args[]) { String s1 = "test"; String s2 = new String(s1); System.out.println(s1==s2); } }
Answer
B. false
59
In java applet programs, the applet life cycle functions are called in which order?
Answer
C. init(), start(), paint(), stop(), destroy()
60
The three notion of java virtual machine are
Answer
B. specification, implementation, instance
61
Collection of entities that have the same attributes are called
Answer
D. Entity type
62
Which of the following key is related with referential integrity constraint?
Answer
C. Foreign key
63
Consider the following table of data r(R) of the relation schema R(XYZ) X Y Z x1 y1 z1 x2 y1 z1 x3 y2 z1 Which of the following functional dependency sets are valid
Answer
B. X->Y, X->Z, Y->Z
64
The SQL aggregate function that returns number of values in a given column is
Answer
A. count( )
65
Which of the following construct returns true if a given tuple is not present in the subquery
Answer
C. not exists
66
What will be the output of the following query? CREATE EmployeeView VIEW AS SELECT nothing FROM Employee WHERE ID < 100
Answer
C. Syntax error
67
Consider a relation A with m rows and relation B with n rows. How many rows will be generated if A × B is performed?
Answer
D. m * n
68
________ is the statement which specifies when the trigger is to be executed.
Answer
C. When
69
Which of the following is true about Atomicity?
Answer
B. Either all of its operations are executed or none
70
Which of the following differentiates Two-Phase Locking with Strict Two-Phase Locking in Concurrency control?
Answer
B. Release locks at commit
71
The middle layer of a three layer client/server architecture is called
Answer
B. Application layer
72
Which of the following element in CSS allows authors to use external style sheets in their pages?
Answer
D. link
73
Which of the following object displays prompt dialog in JavaScript?
Answer
D. window
74
A technology for locating information in an XML document is
Answer
A. xPath
75
The method used in PHP to transfer binary data from client to server is
Answer
B. POST
76
The directive used to specify information needed by ASP.NET to process an ASPX file
Answer
A. Page
77
Which object in AJAX applications manage asynchronous interaction with the server?
Answer
C. XMLHttpRequest
78
Cross-Site Scripting attacks are normally initiated by
Answer
A. Web Client
79
Which of the following in ASP.NET is a data source control method?
Answer
D. SqlConnection
80
Which of the following function is used to exit from a PHP Script?
Answer
C. both 1 and 2
81
Which one among the following is a private IP address?
Answer
D. 192.168.24.40
82
Which layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer in the OSI model?
Answer
B. Host-to-Host
83
Which among the following describes the DHCP Discover message? i. It uses FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF as a layer 2 broadcast ii. It uses UDP as the Transport layer protocol iii. It uses TCP as the Transport layer protocol iv. It does not use a layer 2 destination address
Answer
B. i and ii
84
Among the following IP address classes, which one provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses per network ID?
Answer
C. Class C
85
You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class of address, subnet address, and broadcast address?
Answer
B. Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
86
You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface?
Answer
D. 6
87
The number of unique substitution boxes in DES after the 48 bit XOR operation are
Answer
C. 8
88
For p=11 and q=17, choose e=7. Find the plain text for the Cipher text 11 using the RSA algorithm
Answer
A. 88
89
Which of the following is true about HTTP headers and connection management?
Answer
B. The Host : field in HTTP allows the same web server to server content for multiple domains
90
Which of the following about UNIX socket programming is true? i. When a TCP sender calls close(), the network stack immediately sends a FIN packet to its peer ii. send() on a TCP socket causes a sender to a generate a TCP/IP packet and send it out the appropriate network interface iii. accept() returns when the receiver completes the three-way TCP handshake iv. The return value of recv() specifies the number of bytes read from a socket, or if the socket was closed or an error was encountered
Answer
C. iii and iv
91
COCOMO stands for
Answer
B. Constructive Cost Model
92
Which of the following is not defined in a good Software Requirement Specification (SRS) document?
Answer
D. Algorithm for software implementation
93
Software process and improvement are assessed by
Answer
D. Both 2 and 3
94
CMM model in Software Engineering is a technique of
Answer
B. Improve the software process
95
Alpha and Beta Testing are forms of
Answer
A. Acceptance testing
96
Coupling and cohesion can be represented using a
Answer
B. dependence matrix
97
The tests that run every night during the project development or before a programmer checks in any changes to the global repository are normally characterized as
Answer
B. Regression tests
98
Which of the following reason is valid ones for choosing a top-down process?
Answer
A. Developers can present a demo of the project to the management faster than using a bottom-up process
99
Consider the following statements (i) Bottom-up testing is not an effective way to reveal architectural design flaws. (ii) Top-down testing can be time-consuming, because you need to write stubs for many modules.
Answer
C. Both (i) and (ii) are true
100
Consider the following statements (i) When designing tests, if partitions are chosen perfectly, there is no point to testing boundary values near the edges of the partition. (ii) Glass-box tests designed for one implementation are valid to use when testing another implementation.
Answer
C. Both (i) and (ii) are true
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