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Kerala PSC Technical Assistant X Ray – Govt Ayurveda College Previous Question Paper – 104/2024/OL

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Post NameTechnical Assistant X Ray - Govt Ayurveda College
Question Paper Code104/2024/OL
Category Code531/2023
Date of Test4 September 2024
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
Which of the following statements are true regarding x-rays? i. Invisible ii. Electrically charged iii. No mass iv. Can be optically focused
Answer
B. i and iii are correct
2
X ray beam used in diagnostic radiography are
Answer
C. Polyenergetic
3
Wavelength and frequency are
Answer
A. Inversely related
4
Focusing cup used in X ray tubes has
Answer
C. Negative charge
5
Atomic number of tungsten
Answer
D. 74
6
X-rays other than primary beam escaping the tube house are called
Answer
B. Leakage radiation
7
When electrons strike the anode target, how many percentage of kinteic energy is converted to X-rays approximately?
Answer
A. 1
8
Anode heel effect can be used while taking radiograph of
Answer
D. Thoracic spine
9
Which of the following statements are true about increasing the efficiency of X-ray tube? i. Warm up the tube after a long idle time ii. Do not move the tube while it is energized iii. Avoid excessive heat unit generation iv. Hold the rotor button without making an exposure
Answer
B. i, ii, iii are correct
10
Which material is primarily used for added filtration in X ray tubes?
Answer
C. Aluminum
11
Cervical rib is associated with
Answer
B. Klippel-Feil syndrome
12
Vitamin D3 is converted to 25-OH vitamin D3 in which organ?
Answer
D. Liver
13
Boehler Angle is seen at
Answer
A. Foot
14
Dynamic post contrast imaging is employed in the evaluation of
Answer
C. Pituitary microadenoma
15
Optic nerve is seen in which compartment?
Answer
A. Intraconal
16
Most common site of Thyroglossal duct cyst is
Answer
C. Midline neck
17
Pneumothorax is most frequently seen in X ray as
Answer
A. Hyperlucency
18
Reporting and data system used for classifying breast lesions
Answer
B. BIRADS
19
Air is seen in which of the following conditions?
Answer
D. Emphysematous cholecystitis
20
Most common site of colonic diverticulosis
Answer
D. Descending colon
21
Number of films that can be processed per hour is called
Answer
B. Processor capacity
22
Which is the fast-reducing agent used in developer?
Answer
A. Phenidone
23
Which is the hardener used in fixer solution?
Answer
C. Aluminum salts
24
The type of roller which moves the film from one tank to another is
Answer
B. Transport
25
Plus density artifact on X ray film is seen as
Answer
D. Black
26
Median sagittal plane divides the body into
Answer
A. Right and left halves
27
Movement unsharpness can be reduced by
Answer
D. All of the above
28
Ball catcher's view is used in the diagnosis of
Answer
C. Both of the above
29
Which one of the following is not used for achieving skyline projection of Patella?
Answer
B. Prone supero-inferior
30
Stenver's view is used in the radiography of
Answer
A. Petrous temporal bone
31
What is the maximum whole body dose limit of radiation exposure to public per year?
Answer
C. 1 mSv
32
Inverse square law is applied in
Answer
D. Radiography
33
Average of effective dose from background natural radiation in Kerala coast is about _________ mSv/year.
Answer
A. 12.5
34
Typical effective dose of a CT head examination is less than
Answer
A. Barium enema
35
As the pitch factor in CT increases, effective radiation dose to the body _______
Answer
B. Decreases
36
Iodine particle ratio of low osmolar non ionic contrast media is
Answer
C. 3:1
37
The safe level of eGFR (mL/min/1.73 ) above which iodinated contrast can be administered safely without any contraindication is
Answer
D. 60
38
Which among the following is not a risk factor for iodinated contrast medium induced nephropathy?
Answer
D. Hypertension
39
Which among the following are deterministic radiation effects? i. Cataract ii. Skin erythema iii. Oligozoospermia iv. Cancer
Answer
B. i, ii and iii
40
Which among the following is not used in CT for patient dosed reduction?
Answer
C. In-plane bismuth shielding
41
Which emergency drug is used for counteracting bradycardia?
Answer
D. Atropine
42
Qualified X-ray technologist with how many years of experience in the field of CT/Interventional radiology can be nominated for RSO (Radiation Safety Officer) approval after registering as Radiation Professional (RP) in e-LORA.
Answer
A. 3
43
What should be the thickness of lead in mm lining the door of CT examination room?
Answer
C. 2
44
Subnormal kVp radiography is
Answer
C. Mammography
45
Skeletal survey is used in
Answer
D. All of the above
46
The technique of radiography in which the part to be visualized remains stationary during exposure while overlying structures produce unsharp images due to its motion is used in
Answer
B. Cervical spine
47
The window used in mammography tube
Answer
D. Beryllium
48
Which of the following anatomic structure in children can mimic pathology in chest radiograph?
Answer
B. Thymus
49
The radiograph taken for age determination of a person around 11 years
Answer
A. Elbow
50
Maximum pressure used in mammography for breast compression is
Answer
B. 200 N
51
and are examples of
Answer
D. Isobars
52
The energy of the characteristic X-ray is
Answer
C. equal to the difference in the binding energies of two orbital electrons involved
53
The half life of Iridium-192 is 74 days. The fraction of atoms that will remain after 148 days
Answer
C. 25%
54
An incident photon interacts with an outer orbital electron. If the energy is shared between the ejected electron and a scattered photon, it is called as
Answer
B. Compton scattering
55
A cobalt-60 teletherapy unit emit
Answer
D. 1.17 and 1.33 MeV Gamma rays
56
The electromagnetic waves used in linear accelerator to generate an electric field
Answer
A. Microwaves
57
What is the purpose of the flattening filter in linear accelerator?
Answer
B. To make the X ray beam intensity uniform across the field
58
The radiation field size is defined as the distance perpendicular to the beam's direction that corresponds to the
Answer
C. 50% isodose at the beam's edge
59
Which of the following is false regarding bolus?
Answer
C. It can increase the skin sparing of megavoltage photon beams
60
According to ICRU report 62, Internal Target Volume (ITV) lies between
Answer
B. CTV and PTV
61
Select the serial organ from the following options
Answer
B. Optic nerve
62
A 14 year old boy has been diagnosed with nasopharyngeal cancer. Which cranial nerve has got the highest probability to be involved?
Answer
B. Abducent nerve
63
All of the following are subsites of supraglottic larynx except
Answer
D. True vocal cords
64
A 45 year old lady has been diagnosed with right sided breast cancer. The tumor measures 6 cm and it is fixed to skin with ulceration. There is also a 2 cm right sided axillary node which is fixed. Metastatic work up is negative. Stage the disease
Answer
D. c T4b N2 M0
65
Which among the following sites is head and neck malignancy has got the highest risk of subclinical neck node involvement?
Answer
D. T1 nasopharynx
66
In breast cancer staging chest wall includes all except
Answer
D. Pectoral muscles
67
A 35 year old gentleman has been diagnosed with HPV positive oropharyngeal cancer. N1 is defined for this patient according to TNM staging as
Answer
C. Metastasis in single or multiple ipsilateral lymph node, none larger than 6 cm
68
Gastroesophageal junction is located at
Answer
C. 40 cm from incisors
69
'Esophageal Cancer Belt' does not include
Answer
A. North America
70
In breast cancer, the lymph node region that is caudal and lateral to the pectoralis minor is categorised as
Answer
A. Level I
71
All are used as modern permanent vLDR implants except
Answer
D. Cobalt - 60
72
In conventional fractionation radiation treatment dose per fraction delivered is between
Answer
A. 1.8-2 Gy
73
Inverse treatment planning is used in
Answer
C. IMRT
74
An electron beam is used for which treatment site
Answer
B. Total skin irradiation
75
4DCT is most useful for the treatment planning of tumour located near the
Answer
C. Diaphragm
76
Advantages of Iridium-192 as HDR source are all except
Answer
B. Short half-life and quarterly source replacement
77
All are image guided radiotherapy techniques except
Answer
D. IMRT
78
VMAT usually refers to
Answer
C. Intensity modulated photon field delivered with gantry in motion
79
High dose rate brachytherapy as per ICRU report no 38 is
Answer
A. >12Gy/Hr
80
All are brachytherapy techniques except
Answer
D. Total body irradiation
81
All are features of modern CT simulator except
Answer
D. Small bore CT scanner
82
Xerostomia in head and neck radiation is best avoided by which technique
Answer
C. IMRT
83
All are organs at risk in Head and Neck radiation planning except
Answer
D. Planning target volume
84
State the true statement
Answer
A. Breast conservative surgery is followed by whole breast radiation
85
State the wrong statement
Answer
D. Inverse treatment planning is done in 3DCRT
86
Craniospinal radiation is a technique used in
Answer
B. Medulloblastoma
87
Organ preservation is possible with radiation treatment in which site
Answer
A. Larynx
88
Accelerated partial breast radiation uses following techniques except
Answer
C. Radio immunotherapy
89
All are immobilisation devices used in radiation treatment except
Answer
B. Water phantom
90
Image verification in radiotherapy planning is done by all except
Answer
A. Belly board
91
What is the primary characteristic of stochastic effects in Radiation Oncology?
Answer
C. Occur randomly and are independent of radiation dose
92
What is the recommended dose limit for the lens of the eye for occupational exposure in Radiation oncology?
Answer
A. 150 mSv/year
93
What is the effect of doubling the distance from a radiation source on radiation exposure?
Answer
C. Exposure decreases by a factor of 4
94
What is the primary advantage of Volumetric Arc therapy to traditional IMRT?
Answer
B. Reduced treatment time
95
What is the half life of Iodine 125 (I-125) seeds used in permanent prostate implants?
Answer
A. 60 days
96
What is the typical number of cobalt sources used in Gamma knife unit?
Answer
C. 201 sources
97
What is the primary goal of Stereotatic Body Radiation Therapy?
Answer
D. To deliver a high radiation dose to a small well defined tumor volume
98
A patient with cervical cancer is undergoing External beam radiation therapy. She had a treatment break of 10 days due to side effects. What is the most significant concern regarding the treatment gap?
Answer
A. Reduced tumor control due to accelerated re population
99
What is the name of the device used to measure individual's cumulative radiation exposure?
Answer
B. Dosimeter
100
What is the name of the technology used in Cyber knife system to track and adjust for tumor movement during treatment?
Answer
D. Synchrony

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