| Post Name | Theatre Technician - Kerala Medical education Service |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 020/2020/OL |
| Category Code | 017/2019 |
| Date of Test | 30 November 2020 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Where does spinal cord ends ?
Answer
B. L1 – L2
2
Number of spinal nerves
Answer
B. 31 pairs
3
Which structure is pierced during caudal anaesthesia ?
Answer
C. Sacrococcygeal membrane
4
Formula for determining the size of the Endotracheal tube
Answer
Question Cancelled
5
Muscle relaxant undergoing break down through Hoffmann elimination is
Answer
B. Atracurium
6
Remifentanyl is metabolized in the body by
Answer
A. Red cell nonspecific esterases
7
Shortest acting non-depolarizing muscle relaxant is
Answer
D. Mivacurium
8
Most physiological Intravenous fluid is
Answer
D. Ringer Lactate
9
10 ml of available KCl preparation (Potassium Chloride) contains
Answer
C. 20 mEq Potassium
10
𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3 (Sodium bicarbonate) is used in all the following conditions except
Answer
A. Hypernatraemia
11
Amount of Oxygen each gram of Hemoglobin can carry is
Answer
D. 1.39 ml
12
The maximum volume of air that can be exhaled following a maximal inspiration is
Answer
A. Vital Capacity
13
Pulse oximetry is based on which law ?
Answer
B. Beer Lambert law
14
Which of the following endotracheal tube has resistance to kinking and compression and is indicated for use in the neck, neurological procedures ?
Answer
D. Spiral embedded armored tube
15
The term 'tare weight' is related to
Answer
B. Gas cylinder
16
Sellick's maneuver is used to prevent
Answer
C. To prevent aspiration of gastric contents
17
All the following drug therapies should be continued before surgery (in pre-operative fasting period) except
Answer
A. Oral hypoglycemic
18
Which of the following breathing circuit requires lowest amount of fresh gas flows ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
19
Which of the following inhalational agent is degraded to a nephrotoxic end product (Compound A) by alkalies (Sodium Hydroxide or Barium Hydroxide) used in circle system ?
Answer
D. Sevoflurane
20
Phenylephrine is classified under
Answer
A. Alpha 1 agonist
21
Which of the following is not an amide group of local anaesthetics ?
Answer
B. Chlorprocaine
22
Flumazenil is
Answer
D. A benzodiazepine antagonist
23
As per the new "Nil by mouth" guidelines, clear fluid intake is allowed upto
Answer
A. 2 hours before surgery
24
Which systemic symptoms are manifested first following local anaesthetic toxicity ?
Answer
A. Central Nervous System
25
Which nerve distribution is not optimally anaesthetized following Interscalene brachial plexus block ?
Answer
B. Ulnar
26
Winnie's "Three in one block" blocks all the three nerves except
Answer
B. Sciatic
27
Normal Systemic Vascular Resistance (S.V.R.) is
Answer
D. 900 – 1500 dyn.S/cm5
28
Majority of blood volume is distributed in the
Answer
D. Systemic veins
29
Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic which acts by
Answer
D. Alpha, Beta receptors, Sodium and Calcium channels blockade
30
Diaphragm is innervated by
Answer
B. C3, C4, C5 spinal nerves
31
Normal value of Partial pressure of Carbon dioxide in arterial blood (Pa 𝐶𝑂2 ) is
Answer
A. 35 – 45 mm Hg
32
Crystals in the Ultrasound probe works on the principle of
Answer
A. Piezo electric effect
33
Pregnant patient is desaturated relatively early during direct laryngoscopy after induction of general anaesthesia due to
Answer
D. Decreased functional residual capacity and increased metabolic rate in pregnancy
34
Normal Anion Gap acidosis is seen in
Answer
A. Renal Tubular Acidosis
35
Compression ventilation ratio in adult Basic Life Support algorithm is
Answer
B. 30 : 2
36
The most reliable method for assessing the presence of endotracheal tube in trachea is
Answer
D. Quantitative continuous wave form capnography
37
Cardioversion with synchronized electrical energy is done in all except
Answer
A. Ventricular Fibrillation
38
The drug used in Asystole and Pulseless Electrical Activity is
Answer
D. Adrenaline
39
Compression ventilation ratio in a new born is
Answer
B. 3 : 1
40
Most cardiostable induction agent is
Answer
D. Etomidate
41
Which drug causes rigidity of chest on rapid administration in large doses ?
Answer
A. Fentanyl
42
Dose of heparin for anticoagulation before going to cardiopulmonary bypass in On pump cardiac surgeries
Answer
B. 3 mg/Kg body weight
43
How Intra Aortic Balloon Counter Pulsation (IABP) is protective for myocardium ?
Answer
C. Improves coronary perfusion and reduces afterload
44
How long smoking should be discontinued before elective surgeries to reduce peri operative pulmonary complications ?
Answer
B. 6 – 8 weeks
45
Which is the most commonly used double lumen bronchial tube nowadays ?
Answer
D. Robert-Shaw
46
Cerebral blood flow remains nearly constant between Mean Arterial Pressure of
Answer
C. 60 – 160 mmHg
47
Venous air embolism during neurosurgery can occur when
Answer
D. The pressure within the open vein is sub-atmospheric
48
Rate of correction of sodium in severe hyponatraemia is
Answer
A. 0.5 – 1 mEq/L/hour and not more than 10 mEq/L/Day
49
Which is the most important buffer system in Extra cellular fluid compartment ?
Answer
D. Bicarbonate – Carbonic acid
50
Lithotomy position is required for all of the following except
Answer
B. Laparoscopic tubectomy
51
All of the following agents should be avoided in a patient with Malignant Hyperthermia except
Answer
D. Vecuronium
52
The following is the process that kills spores
Answer
B. Sterilization
53
The PIN safety system is designed for which purpose ?
Answer
C. The prevent the placement of gas tanks onto the wrong yolk
54
The Piped gas pressure should be
Answer
D. 50-55 psig
55
All of the following are characteristics of modern day vaporizers except
Answer
D. In circuit
56
An effective anesthesia breathing system has
Answer
D. All of the above
57
Which of the following is NOT indicative of an exhausted 𝐶𝑂2 absorbent ?
Answer
B. Increase in temperature of the granules
58
Which of the following ventilator modes requires patient to initiate a respiratory cycle ?
Answer
B. Pressure Support
59
Function of PEEP is
Answer
A. It prevents alveolar collapse hence improves Oxygenation
60
A leak in oxygen flow tube may be identified with the help of
Answer
C. Negative pressure leak test
61
AHA Blood Pressure cuff recommendations for adult size is
Answer
B. 24-32 cm
62
The most reliable site for monitoring core temperature is
Answer
D. Esophagus
63
An elevation in the baseline of 𝐶𝑂2 monitoring can be due to
Answer
D. All of the above
64
Medications not commonly used in infusion pumps include
Answer
B. Thiopentone Sodium
65
Optimum dose of defibrillation in a monophasic manual external defibrillator is
Answer
D. 360 J
66
Anaphylaxis can typically present as
Answer
A. Hypotension and bronchospasm
67
Pin index of Nitrous Oxide
Answer
C. 3, 5
68
The Breathing circuit of choice for Spontaneous Ventilation is
Answer
A. Mapleson A
69
Which of the following device provides fixed performance oxygen therapy ?
Answer
B. Venturi Mask
70
Sellick's Maneuver is used to prevent
Answer
C. Aspiration
71
Position with least Vital Capacity in patients under General anesthesia
Answer
A. Trendelenburg
72
Most common complication of a central venous catheter is
Answer
C. Catheter related infections
73
During General Anesthesia, Shivering is abolished by the suppression of
Answer
C. Hypothalamus
74
The % of Thiopentone used for induction is
Answer
D. 2.5%
75
Hepatitis is commonly an adverse effect of constant exposure to
Answer
B. Halothane
76
Which of the following induction agent is suitable for day care surgery ?
Answer
C. Propofol
77
Rate of Chest Compression in CPCR is
Answer
D. 100-120/mt
78
Mechanism of Action of Local Anesthetics
Answer
B. 𝑁𝑎 + channel inhibition
79
Concentration of Lignocaine for Spinal Anaesthesia
Answer
A. 5%
80
Pneumothorax is a complication of
Answer
B. Brachial plexus block
81
In Spinal Anaesthesia which fibres are first blocked by local anaesthetic ?
Answer
A. Sympathetic
82
The granule size of sodalime in canister is
Answer
B. 4-8 mesh
83
The ideal BIS value which prevents awareness under anesthesia is
Answer
B. 40-60
84
Pulse oximeter works on the principle of
Answer
C. Beer Lamberts law
85
ASA classification is done for
Answer
C. Health status of patient
86
Muscle relaxant of choice in Renal failure
Answer
C. Atracurium
87
Spinal Cord ends at which level in adults ?
Answer
B. L1-L2
88
ASA Standard Monitoring includes all except
Answer
C. IBP
89
Amount of K+ in Ringer Lactate in mEq/L
Answer
C. 4
90
Most cardiotoxic local anesthetic is
Answer
B. Bupivacaine
91
The only Local anesthetic consistently causing vasoconstriction is
Answer
B. Cocaine
92
Shortest acting local anesthetic is
Answer
A. Procaine
93
Which of the following is not a direct Vasodilator ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
94
The most common peri operative neuropathy involves which nerve ?
Answer
A. Ulnar
95
Which skin preparation has the highest residual activity ?
Answer
A. Chlorhexidine
96
The hazards associated with the use of dessicated absorbent includes
Answer
D. All of the above
97
An E type cylinder of oxygen has a pressure reading of 1200 psi prior to transport. How long will the 𝑂2 supply last with a flow of 8 L/min ?
Answer
A. 42 min
98
Scavenging system consist of all except
Answer
C. Fresh gas outlet
99
A sidestream gas analyser
Answer
Question Cancelled
100
Indication for the use of Rigid video laryngoscopes includes all except
Answer
B. Emergency surgical airway requirement
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