Skip to content
10th Level - Practice App Completely Free · 100K+ Users Install

Kerala PSC Theatre Technician – Medical Education Previous Question Paper – 118/2024/OL

Practice Mode

Sit all 96 questions full screen, one at a time. Sign in and your score, your time and where you got to are kept — put it down here and finish it on your phone.

Sign in to practise
Post NameTheatre Technician - Medical Education
Question Paper Code118/2024/OL
Category Code677/2023
Date of Test24 October 2024
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
Sinoatrial Node (SA Node) is the pacemaker of human heart because
Answer
C. SA Node generates impulses at the fastest rate
2
All are causes of positive Babinski sign except
Answer
C. Stimulation of pyramidal tract
3
The area in brain primarily concerned with planning and programming of events
Answer
B. Basal Ganglia
4
Factor that shift oxygen dissociation curve to right
Answer
C. Increase in body temperature
5
Physiological changes in pregnancy include all except
Answer
B. Increase in vital capacity
6
Which of the following veins of heart does not open into coronary sinus?
Answer
C. Anterior cardiac
7
Most important muscles of expiration are
Answer
Question Cancelled
8
The immediate precursor of catecholamines as adrenaline and noradrenaline is
Answer
D. Dopamine
9
Insulin secretion is inhibited by
Answer
B. Epinephrine
10
Which of the following conditions not associated with ST segment elevation on ECG?
Answer
D. Hypocalcemia
11
If a flow meter tube in the anesthesia machine is broken the following should be done:
Answer
D. The Flow meter tube, indicator and scale must be replaced on a whole
12
Which of the following facts reflects about Heat of Vaporization?
Answer
D. It is expressed as Calories/gm (gram)
13
Safety features in Medical gas cylinders are the following except:
Answer
D. Conical depression and Diameter indexed safety system
14
Storage of Medical gas cylinders should be done in the following manner except
Answer
D. Cylinders should be stored with their wrappings in the definitive area
15
In the manifold, features regarding shut off valve given below are true, except
Answer
D. Shut off valves are not required at the outlet of the supply source.
16
Compressed air is most often supplied by
Answer
C. Compressors
17
Best position for intubating an adult patient using rigid Laryngoscope
Answer
B. Flexion of the lower cervical spine and Extension of the head
18
Advantages of Combitubi include all the following except
Answer
D. Can be used in cases of Oesophageal trauma
19
Hypothermia in Paediatric patients predisposes to
Answer
D. All of the above
20
Regional Anesthesia in Paediatric patients are different from adults except
Answer
C. Duration of block is more than for adults.
21
Capnograph can be used to monitor the following
Answer
D. All of the above
22
Laryngospasm occurring during Anesthesia can be relieved by
Answer
B. Larson's Manoevre
23
Factors affecting the height (level) of Block in Spinal Anesthesia (Sub Arachanoid block) are all except
Answer
Question Cancelled
24
Regarding Post dural puncture headache all the following are true except
Answer
A. Occurs within 6 hrs of giving Spinal anesthesia.
25
In Inter scalene approach for Brachial Plexus, block common complication seen are the following except:
Answer
D. Nausea and vomiting
26
Contraindication for Peripheral Nerve Block are all the following except
Answer
D. Full Stomach Patients
27
Internal Jugular Vein Cannulation usually done for
Answer
D. All of the above
28
In Sub clavian vein cannulation common complication occuring in
Answer
Question Cancelled
29
Packed Cell transfusion advantages are all except
Answer
D. Half life of transfused RBC's can be increased.
30
In acute Blood Transfusion reaction the following measures should be done.
Answer
D. All the above.
31
Which of the following is not correct with Bipolar electrocautery?
Answer
C. Can be used for cutting
32
Which laser medium is less likely to produce retinal damage?
Answer
A. COā‚‚
33
Which of the following is most commonly involved in OT room fire?
Answer
C. Electrocautery
34
Most common source of vaccum in hospital is
Answer
B. Pipeline system
35
Pin index for Nitrogen cylinder
Answer
A. 1, 4
36
Most frequently reported malfunction of pipeline system is
Answer
D. Inadequate pressure
37
The Diameter index safety system (DISS) is used for devices at pressure of ________ or less.
Answer
A. 1380 kPa
38
Which is not a disadvantage of syringe pump?
Answer
D. Cannot be used to deliver small quantities of fluids or medications
39
Which is not true for CUSA (Cavitron, Ultrasound Surgical Aspirator)?
Answer
D. Peak tissue temperature produced is much higher compared with that produced by electrocautery
40
Radiation exposure hazards is minimised by
Answer
D. All of the above
41
Process capable of removing or destroying all viable forms of microbial life including bacterial spores.
Answer
C. Sterilization
42
Which is not true regarding formaldehyde?
Answer
C. Corrosive
43
Ethylene Oxide concentration commonly used in medical products
Answer
A. 450 - 750 mgIL
44
Recommended method of sterilization for a reusable LMA
Answer
A. Autoclaving
45
Which colour bin used for seggregation of sharps, soiled gloves, catheters, IV tubes and other infectious and biomedical waste products?
Answer
D. Red
46
Advantages of EO sterilization include all except
Answer
B. Short processing time
47
Disadvantage of steam sterilization include
Answer
C. Instrument damage
48
Hazards of glutaraldehyde exposure include all except
Answer
A. Gastrointestinal upset
49
The functions of the CDC include
Answer
D. Recommending broad strategies to prevent transmission of infections in the health care environment.
50
All of the following are Blood borne diseases except
Answer
C. Tuberculosis
51
The position used for anorectal procedures utilising a hypobaric local anaesthetic solution is (Jack Knife Position)
Answer
A. Prone position
52
During Central Venous Cannulation (IJV) the patient is placed in Trendlenburg position
Answer
B. To reduce the risk of air embolism
53
Which nerve is affected following improper, extreme and prolonged maintenance of Lithotomy position?
Answer
C. Common Peroneal Nerve
54
Which of the following positions is not recommended in the case of a patient with moderate to severe left ventricular dysfunction while performing regional blocks
Answer
B. Trendlenburg
55
Which of the following is Not a correct statement regarding axillary roll?
Answer
B. Axillary roll is kept to prevent air embolism
56
In Reverse Trendlenburg position the following changes occur Except
Answer
C. Decreased functional residual capacity
57
During initiation of Lithotomy position
Answer
C. Both legs should be raised together
58
During General Anesthesia in Lateral Decubitus position, there will be
Answer
D. Increased shunt fraction in the dependent lung.
59
Post operative visual loss is a complication of which position?
Answer
B. Prone position
60
Lawn chair position is a variation of
Answer
Question Cancelled
61
Most cardio stable intravenous induction agent
Answer
D. Etomidate
62
Tec - 6 vapourisers are used for administration of which of the following inhalational agents
Answer
B. Desflurane
63
Which of the following Opioid has shortest duration of action?
Answer
B. Remifentanyl
64
Which of the following is not an alpha-2-agonist?
Answer
A. Metaraminol
65
Eutectic Mixture of Local Anaesthetics (EMLA) is a combination of
Answer
D. Lignocaine and Prilocaine
66
Which of the following is a non-catecholamine vasopressor?
Answer
B. Vasopressin
67
Which of the following statement is correct regarding Sugammadex?
Answer
D. Sugammadex reverses Rocuronium and Vecuronium induced Neuromuscular blockade
68
Which is the IV fluid causing Hyperchloraemic Metabolic Acidosis, if infused in large quantities, for replacing blood loss?
Answer
B. Normal Saline
69
Adverse effects of Neostigmine include all the following Except
Answer
D. Drying of secretions
70
Levosimendan is a
Answer
A. Calcium sensitizer
71
Which of the following sites reflect the brain temperature?
Answer
C. Tympanic membrane
72
BIS values recommended for general anesthesia
Answer
B. 40-65
73
A rapid fall in is indicator of :
Answer
D. air embolism
74
Inaccurate readings of pulse oxymetry occur in all except
Answer
B. Fetal Hemoglobinemia
75
'Curare' cleft in Capnograph shows
Answer
C. Spontaneous breathing
76
Allens test is used in
Answer
D. Invasive BP monitoring
77
Complication during central venous cannulation include all except
Answer
D. Fluid overload
78
Which of the following can be sterilised by Pasteurisation?
Answer
D. All of the above
79
Phases of Autocloning include all except -
Answer
C. Disinfection phase
80
Anion gap is increased in
Answer
D. All of the above
81
The primary focus in Cardiac arrest is
Answer
D. Both (1) and (2)
82
Which of the following is a Shockable rhythm?
Answer
D. All of the above
83
Acers that is preferred in CPCR due to early acers and no interference in CPCR is
Answer
B. Peripheral
84
79 year old is in SVT. BP is 80/50 mm Hg and complains of chest discomfort and feels like passing out. What is the next step?
Answer
B. Synchronised Cardio Version
85
A 65 year old man falls from a ladder and is unresponsive. What method must be used in opening airway?
Answer
B. Jaw thrust
86
What does AED stands for?
Answer
C. Automated External Defibrillation
87
2015 AHA guidelines for CPR recommended BLS sequence of steps to be
Answer
B. Compression, airway, breathing
88
The proper steps in operating an AED are
Answer
B. Power on the AED, attach electrode pads, analyse the rhythm, shock the person.
89
Pediatric paddles can be used at what age of children?
Answer
D. less than 8 years
90
In Pediatric CPR the ratio of chest compression to breaths in case of single rescuer is
Answer
C. 30 : 2
91
Adverse Effects of Protamine all except
Answer
D. Arrythmias
92
Adequacy of anticoagulation is achieved by Act Value
Answer
B. 400-450
93
The area where the Anesthetic preparation done for MRI is called
Answer
B. MR Controlled Access Area
94
MRI Compatible oxygen cylinders are made up of (i) Aluminium (ii) Copper (iii) Nickel (iv) Titanium
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iv)
95
Tools in the management of difficult airway in paediatrics all except
Answer
D. Awake Intubation
96
Difficult Airway by definition
Answer
A. Three or more unsuccesful attempts by an individual skilled in airway management
97
Fibreoptic Bronchoscope needs
Answer
B. High level disinfection
98
Optimal Humidity during normal respiration is achieved at the level of
Answer
B. Carina
99
Record of day to day accounts of every transactions in Essential Narcotic drugs is maintained in the format of form
Answer
B. 3D
100
All records of END should be kept for ________ years.
Answer
A. two

Related reading

Discussion

Ask a doubt or share a tip.

No comments yet — start the discussion.

Leave a comment

Your email address and number are never published. Required fields are marked

We will email you a code to confirm the address. Posting creates a PSCNET account if you do not have one.

By posting, you agree to our Privacy Policy.