| Post Name | Treatment Organiser Gr II |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 127/2025 |
| Category Code | 044/2024 |
| Date of Test | 11 October 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Write the number of significant figures in the measurement 0.00060320 m2.
Answer
C. 5
2
A physical quantity P is related to four observables a, b, c and d as follows P = a3b2/cd2. The percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 4% and 2% respectively. What is the percentage error in quantity P?
Answer
B. 17%
3
A man walks on a straight road from his home to a market 2.5 km away with a speed of 5 km h-1. Finding the market closed, he instantly turns and walks back home with a speed of 7.5 km h-1. What is the average speed?
Answer
B. 6 kmh-1
4
| | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | |
Answer
C. 90°
5
A ball is being rotated in a circle of radius 5 m with a constant tangential velocity of 20 m/s. A stone is also being rotated in a circle of radius 4 m with a constant tangential velocity of 16 m/s. Which one of the following choices is true about both the circular motions?
Answer
A. Both have same angular velocity
6
A body is initially at rest. It undergoes one dimensional motion with constant acceleration. The power delivered to it at time t is proportional to
Answer
D. t
7
The escape velocities of two planets A and B are in the ratio 1:2. If the ratio of their radii respectively is 1:3, then the ratio of acceleration due to gravity of planet A to acceleration due to gravity of planet B will be
Answer
D. 3/4
8
A force $\vec{F} = a \hat{i} + 3 \hat{j} + 6 \hat{k}$ is acting at a point $\vec{r} = 2 \hat{i} - 6 \hat{j} - 12 \hat{k}$. The value of 'a' for which the angular momentum about the origin is conserved, is
Answer
A. -1
9
A wire stretches by 1 mm when a force is applied. If the same force is applied to a second wire of same material, half the length and double the radius, what will be the extension?
Answer
A. 0.125 mm
10
a liquid drop splits into smaller droplets. Which of the following statements is true about the total surface energy ?
Answer
C. It increases
11
Consider a sinusoidal wave described by y(x,t) = asin(kx – \omegat t + \phi). If phase difference between two points separated by distance \( \Delta x \) is \( \frac{\pi}{2} \), then the ratio of \( \frac{\Delta X}{\lambda} \) is
Answer
B. 1/4
12
In a forced oscillation, average power supplied by external force is maximum when
Answer
B. Driving force and velocity are in phase
13
A gas has molar heat capacities Cp and Cv. If Cp - Cv = R, then the ratio of slopes of adiabatic P – V curve to isothermal P – V curve at a point is
Answer
A. γ
14
Which statement correctly differentiates heat and internal energy (U)?
Answer
D. Internal energy is a state variable; heat is energy in transit, not a property of the system
15
How many electrons are there in a body having 8 micro coulomb of charge?
Answer
B. 5 \times 10^{13}
16
Which of the following is not an equipotential surface?
Answer
C. axial plane of a dipole
17
Which of the following elements do not obey Ohm's law?
Answer
C. Germanium
18
Which one of the following is used for making standard resistors?
Answer
A. Manganin
19
Which of the following have negative susceptibility?
Answer
D. Copper
20
A toroid has a core of inner radius 25 cm and outer radius 26 cm around which 3500 turns of wire is wound. If a current of 11A flows through it, what is the magnetic field inside the core?
Answer
B. 0.03T
21
Which of the following factors do not affect mutual inductance of a coil?
Answer
B. Current passing through the coil
22
Which one of the following electromagnetic waves has greater wavelength?
Answer
A. Radio wave
23
Bohr's quantisation condition is
Answer
A. L = nh/2π
24
A concave mirror is cut from a glass ball of diameter 45 cm. The focal length of the mirror is
Answer
C. 11.25 cm
25
The minimum energy to remove an electron from a metal is called
Answer
D. Work function
26
Name the optical phenomenon involved in the working of "light pipe".
Answer
B. Total internal reflection
27
The process of converting alternating current to direct current is
Answer
A. Rectification
28
The time taken for the decay of one half of initial number of nuclei
Answer
B. Half life
29
Which among the following is used as a voltage regulator?
Answer
D. Zener diode
30
The magnification of a compound microscope with objective of focal length 2 cm, eyepiece of focal length 4 cm and tube length 24 cm is
Answer
C. 75
31
The amount of water formed by the combustion of 0.5 mol methane is
Answer
B. 18 q
32
The molarity of a solution obtained by diluting 1 molar 250 ml hydrochloric acid to 1,000 ml is
Answer
D. 0.25 M
33
Number of unpaired electrons in nitrogen atom is
Answer
A. 3
34
Which of the following orbital is symmetrical around the nucleus?
Answer
A. s orbital
35
Rutherford's gold foil experiment demonstrate
Answer
C. The existence of nucleus
36
Which one of the following is a primary cell?
Answer
C. Dry cell
37
The molar concentration of hydronium ion in a solution having pH = 3 is
Answer
D. 10-3 molL-1
38
Milk is an example of
Answer
B. Emulsion
39
Modern periodic law was designed by
Answer
B. Henry Moseley
40
The element shows maximum electronegativity is
Answer
C. Fluorine
41
Syn gas is
Answer
C. CO + H2
42
In the Clark's method, the substance used to remove hardness of water is
Answer
D. Ca(OH)2
43
Sodium hexa meta phosphate is commercially called
Answer
A. Calgon
44
The chemical which is industrially known as perhydrol is
Answer
C. Hydrogen peroxide
45
The hardest naturally occurring substance is
Answer
A. Diamond
46
Ammonia can be synthesised by using the method is
Answer
D. Haber process
47
Oleum is
Answer
A. H2S2O7
48
The 'silver' UK coin is an alloy of
Answer
B. Copper and nickel
49
Which of the following is a narrow spectrum antibiotic?
Answer
B. Penicillin G
50
Which of the following is incorrect about Sucrolose? i. Sucrolose is the first popular artificial sweetening agent ii. It is trichloro derivative of Sucrose iii. It does not provide Calories iv. It is stable at cooking temperature
Answer
C. Only i
51
Which metal atom is present in Vitamin B12?
Answer
C. Co
52
Which of the following is correct about Sucrose? i. Sucrose is a reducing sugar ii. In Sucrose the two monosaccharides are held together by a glycosidic linkage iii. Hydrolysis of Sucrose brings about change in the sign of optical rotation from laevo to dextro
Answer
C. Only ii
53
The nitrogen base not present in RNA is
Answer
D. Thymine
54
The compound that gives a reddish brown precipitate on heating with Fehling's reagent is
Answer
B. CH3 - CHO
55
Give the IUPAC name of the following compound. 0 CI H
Answer
C. 3-Chloropropanal
56
The catalyst used for the polymerisation of ethylene to form HDPE (High Density Polyethylene) is
Answer
B. Ziegler-Natta Catalyst
57
The compound added to soaps to impart antiseptic property is
Answer
C. Bithionol
58
Glycerol can be separated from spent-lye in soap industry by
Answer
A. Distillation under reduced pressure
59
Double fertilization among angiosperms involve
Answer
D. Fusion of one male gamete with egg and the other male gamete with polar nuclei
60
The pollengrain of an angiosperm plant contain 12 chromosomes, the number of chromosome in endosperm cell of the plant is
Answer
B. 36
61
Formation of new generation from egg/female gamete without fertilization is
Answer
C. Parthenogenesis
62
Which of the following process is a part of pre-fertilization event?
Answer
A. Gametogenesis
63
The ratio of protein and lipid varies considerably in plasma membrane of different cells. The plasma membrane of human RBC has
Answer
B. 40 percent lipids and 52 percent proteins
64
Pairing of homologous chromosome to form bivalent occur in which stage of meiosis?
Answer
D. Zygotene
65
Which of the following is a bacterial source of Single Cell Protein (SCP)?
Answer
A. Methylophilus methylotrophus
66
Pusa Swarnim (Karan Rai) is resistant to which disease?
Answer
D. White rust
67
Which among the following are selectable marker of Pb-322?
Answer
C. ampR, tetR
68
Cloning vector suitable for gene transfer in plants
Answer
A. Ti Plasmid
69
The Selective marker in antibiotic resistant gene used in RDNA technology
Answer
C. ampR
70
Which of the following statement is correct about steps involved in Recombinant DNA technology?
Answer
C. Only a and c
71
Which is an exception in an ecosystem where the sun is not the source of energy?
Answer
A. Deep-sea hydro thermal ecosystem
72
What is the sequence of successional stages occurring in water called?
Answer
B. Hydrarch succession
73
One of the following is needed for the conversion of trypsinogen into trypsin
Answer
B. Enterokinase
74
Which of the following is removed from our body by the lungs?
Answer
C. CO2 and H2O
75
Which one of the following is pace maker of heart ?
Answer
A. Sa node
76
Which of these is a bone of the appendicular skeleton?
Answer
C. Clavicle
77
The process where the blastocyst becomes firmly embedded in the uterine lining is called
Answer
D. Implantation
78
Which hormone regulate sleep-wakeup cycle of the human body?
Answer
D. Melatonin
79
"Insecticides and pesticides used for controlling animal and plant diseases and pests, are toxic and have been polluting our environment." Biocontrol methods were developed for controlling these pathogens and pests. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt), is a microbial agent used to control
Answer
Question Cancelled
80
Common name of four vertebrate animals are given. From these identify the odd one with reference to presence or absence of jaw.
Answer
A. Hag Fish
81
"HIV is a member of virus group called Retrovirus." In HIV genetic information passes from
Answer
D. RNA \rightarrow DNA \rightarrow Protein
82
"Human blood groups are determined by a single gene 1, this 1 gene have 3 alleles. These alleles form 6 genotype combinations. These genotypes have 4 phenotypic expressions, A, B, AB, O - blood groups." Of these 4 blood groups one is co-dominant. Identify the co-dominant from the following blood groups.
Answer
B. AB group
83
"The genetic make up of human male is 44 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes, X and Y. In female, 44 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes, XX," Which chromosome/ chromosomes determine the sex of the male child in human?
Answer
D. Y chromosome
84
The genetic code is composed of 64 codons. 61 codons code for 20 amino acids. 3 codons are stop codons and do not code for amino acids. From the codons given below find out the odd one.
Answer
B. AUG
85
"Microorganisms like Bacteria, Fungus, Yeast etc., are useful to humans for many purposes." From the names of Bacterias given, find out the Bacteria used for the production of Biogas.
Answer
A. Methanobacterium
86
"A body cavity or coelom is characteristic in most of the animals." A false coelom or pseudocoelom is found in which of the invertebrate phylum?
Answer
B. Phylum: Aschelminthes
87
If A and B are non-empty sets, then (A \cap B) \cup (A - B) is equal to
Answer
C. A
88
If n(A) = 10, n(A × B) = 10, then n(B) is
Answer
B. 1
89
Incorrect statement is
Answer
C. secθ = \frac{1}{2}
90
The domain of f(x) = \sqrt{25-x^2} is
Answer
A. [- 5, 5]
91
Let a, b be two real numbers between 3 and 81 such that the resulting sequence 3, a, b, 81 is in a geometric progression. The value of a + b is
Answer
D. 36
92
The 30th term of the arithmetic progression 10, 7, 4,..... is
Answer
B. -77
93
The slope of the straight line \frac{x}{10} - \frac{y}{4} = 3 is
Answer
A. \frac{2}{5}
94
The value of \lambda for which the vectors \hat{i} + \hat{j} - \hat{k} and \lambda \hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + \hat{k} are perpendicular to
Answer
C. -2
95
If |\vec{a} = 3, |\vec{b} = 4 and |\vec{a} - \vec{b}| = \sqrt{7}, then \vec{a} \cdot \vec{b} is equal to
Answer
B. 9
96
The eccentricity of the ellipse x2 + \frac{y^2}{4} = 1 is
Answer
B. \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}
97
If f(x) = x6 + 6x, then f'(x) is
Answer
C. 6x^5 + 6^x \log 6
98
sin 765° is equal to
Answer
D. \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}
99
The number of arrangements containing all the seven letters of the word 'ALRIGHT' that begins with LG is
Answer
B. 120
100
In a group of 100 persons, 80 people can speak Malayalam and 60 can speak English. Then the number of people who speak English only is
Answer
D. 20
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