| Post Name | TREATMENT ORGANIZER GR II |
|---|---|
| Department | HEALTH SERVICES |
| Question Paper Code | 089/2018 |
| Date of Test | 10 August 2018 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 99 |
1
The part of a cell at which glycolysis taking place is
Answer
B. Cytoplasm
2
What is the respiratory quotient of carbohydrate?
Answer
A. One
3
“S A node” is located on ––––––––––––– part of heart
Answer
D. Right atrium
4
––––––––––––– is a part of male reproductive system in humans
Answer
A. Epididymis
5
Villi is found inside the
Answer
B. Small intestine
6
The type of synovial joint present in knee
Answer
A. Hinge joint
7
Nissl granules are the characteristic of which cell?
Answer
B. Nerve cell
8
The leutinising hormone has the highest concentration during
Answer
C. Ovulation
9
Which is the genotype of blood group ‘AB’?
Answer
B. IA IB
10
The most abundant leucocyte present in the blood
Answer
A. Neutrophil
11
The gland that is attached to the kidney is
Answer
C. Adrenal gland
12
The ‘Fovea’ at the retina of eye contains––––––––––––– cells?
Answer
B. Only cones
13
Which among the following is a wrong statement about a skeletal muscle?
Answer
D. Presence of intercated disc
14
The middle layer of wall of uterus is
Answer
A. Myometrium
15
Gastric gland cell that produce HCl is
Answer
C. Oxyntic cells
16
Name the bone present in the pelvic girdle
Answer
D. All of the above
17
Which among the following is hyperglycemic hormone?
Answer
C. Glucagon
19
The function of ‘Sertoli cells’ that is found inside the testes
Answer
B. Nutrition
20
The disorder ‘Night blindness’ is due to the deficiency of
Answer
A. Vitamin ‘A’
21
The immediate action to prevent further damage caused by corrosive acid chemical burns
Answer
B. Flood the part with water, Bathe the part with an alkaline solution
22
Constrictive bandage to be applied on the victims heart side of the Snake bite, is tighly enough
Answer
A. To stop the circulation through the veins of the bitten limb
23
Which blood vessels carry bright red blood, in hemorrhage?
Answer
C. Artery
24
The important clinical features which is present during excessive exposure to the sun
Answer
D. The skin is red, swollen, painful A 5
25
A heavy victim can be lifted without undue strain for the first aider. The principles of lifting a victim are as follows, EXCEPT
Answer
C. Keep your head and back lean forward to lift the body of victim
26
Disease characterised by the decreased blood supply to the brain, due to blood clot, hemorrhage or embolus is termed as
Answer
D. Stroke
27
In stock keep the patient in supine position with his head lower than the rest of the body, this is to
Answer
A. To improve the venous return from the lower limbs and improve blood supply to the brain
28
The term difficulty in breathing is known as
Answer
D. Dyspnea
29
The normal blood pressure of an adult
Answer
B. 120/80 mm Hg
30
Patient with prolonged bed rest and restricted movements develop a deformity called
Answer
D. Foot drop
31
Fluid and nutrients are introduced into the stomach through a tube, when the patient is unable to eat food
Answer
D. Gavage 0 0 6 A
32
It is the instillation of solution into the lower bowel and rectum
Answer
C. Enema
33
DOTS plus programme launched in the year
Answer
A. 2007
34
1gm protein yields
Answer
B. 4 calories
35
Which of the following is not involved in cardio pulmonary resuscitation?
Answer
C. Do Heimlichs maneuver
36
It is the process of destroying all types of pathogenic and non pathogenic organisms including virus and spores
Answer
C. Sterilization
37
Diarrhea, cholera, typhoid are caused by
Answer
A. Pollution of water and food
38
The early signs and symptoms of tuberculosis
Answer
A. Cough, fever, weight loss
39
It is yellowish discolouration in the sclera of the eyes, mucous membrane and the skin due to a disease condition
Answer
B. Jaundice
40
Convert Fahrenheit to celcius: 9 5
Answer
D. C F 32q u 5 9 A 7
41
Unpleasant odour of breath is known as
Answer
D. Halitosis
42
The action taken prior to the onset of disease which removes the possibility that the disease will ever occur is
Answer
C. Primary prevention
43
Interval between entrance of pathogen into body and appearance of first symptoms
Answer
A. Incubation period
44
Deficiency of Vitamin A causes
Answer
A. Night blindness
45
Excessive shedding of the scalp skin is known as
Answer
D. Dandruff
46
Immunity that a person inherits or gets through genetic structure is known as
Answer
D. Natural immunity
47
Which vaccine is used against tuberculosis prevention?
Answer
B. BCG
48
Which of the following is not bactericidal drug?
Answer
B. Ethambutol
49
Tuberculosis is transmitted mainly by
Answer
B. Droplet Infection
50
Fungal infection between the toes of foot is known as
Answer
C. Athletes foot
51
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is discovered by
Answer
B. Robert Koch
52
An AFB smear consistently found to be positive would have to contain how many bacilli/ml of sputum
Answer
A. 10000 AFB per ml
53
False positive AFB smear means
Answer
D. All of the above
54
Tuberculosis is spread from sputum smear positive patient to others is by
Answer
D. All of the above
55
At present anti TB drugs in RNTCP of India is given as
Answer
A. Daily short course therapy
56
In treatment card “Name of Treatment Centre”
Answer
C. The center from patient taking treatment
57
Type of Patient marked in treatment card all are correct EXCEPT
Answer
B. D–Death
58
Positive result in Laboratory Form for Sputum Examination at Results section written in
Answer
C. Red ink
59
Treatment completed patient which of the following is correct
Answer
D. All of the above
60
Defaulted TB patient means
Answer
D. Has not taken anti-TB drugs consecutively for 2 months or more
61
Tuberculosis Research Centre in India is situated at
Answer
C. Chennai
62
National TB Centre in India is situated at
Answer
D. Bengaluru
63
After 2 months of conventional anti TB therapy sputum examination is positive it suggestive of
Answer
C. Resistant TB
64
Most correct test to find TB infection in a country is
Answer
D. Tuberculin test 0 0 10 A
65
Tuberculin test help to find out
Answer
A. Prior exposure to mycobacterium tuberculosis
66
In RNTCP CAT- 1ATT sputum examination done at
Answer
B. 2,4,6 months
67
One sputum positive TB patient can infect
Answer
C. 10-15 person per year
68
What is the RNTCP cure rate?
Answer
C. 80%
69
Which drug is not include in RNTCP CAT 1
Answer
D. Levofloxacin
70
By WHO definition of MDR TB means resistance to
Answer
D. INH and Rifampicin with or without other drugs
71
Combination of multiple drugs given in TB treatment is
Answer
C. Prevent resistance
72
Which of the following drug is not use in pregnancy
Answer
D. Streptomycin A 11
73
WHO best criteria to diagnose pulmonary TB is
Answer
B. Sputum positive
74
Who is the following person had contact with smear positive TB need preventive chemotherapy?
Answer
C. Child below 6 years
75
One tuberculin unit is
Answer
A. 1 unit of PPD RT3
76
Smear positive means
Answer
B. One sample positive out of two samples
77
TB in diabetes is true
Answer
D. All of the above
78
Prevalence of Tubercular infection in India is
Answer
B. 40%
79
When to give BCG vaccination ideally?
Answer
A. As early after birth
80
State TB Centre of Kerala is situated at
Answer
C. Thiruvananthapuram
81
In which Indian State the Harappan site Kalibangan is located?
Answer
B. Rajasthan
82
In which year Indian National congress was founded?
Answer
D. 1885
83
Who is popularly known as ‘Kumara Guru’?
Answer
A. Poikayil Yohannan
84
At which place Gandhiji experimented with Satyagraha for the first time in India
Answer
A. Champaran
85
Who serves as the defence minister of India at present?
Answer
B. Nirmala Seetharaman
86
Which day is observed as ‘International Women’s day’?
Answer
C. March 8
87
Which is the birth place of Sree Narayana Guru?
Answer
D. Chempazhanti
88
Who led the Villuvandi strike in Kerala?
Answer
C. Ayyankali
89
Among the following which is not a west-flowing river in Kerala?
Answer
C. Kabani
90
In which district of Kerala the archaeological site Pattanam is located?
Answer
D. Ernakulam A 13
91
Who won Dada Saheb Phalke Award 2017?
Answer
A. Vinod Khanna
92
Which Indian State prepared ‘Water ATM policy’ to provide clean drinking water?
Answer
A. Haryana
93
Name the Nair social reformist who revolted against Brahmin dominance in Kerala?
Answer
B. Chatampi Swamikal
94
Who led ‘Savarna Jatha’ as a part of Vaikkom Satyagraha?
Answer
C. Mannath Padmanabhan
95
Who founded the Travancore Muslim Mahajana Sabha?
Answer
B. Vakkam Abdul Khadir Maulavi
96
Who acts as the Chairperson of the Niti Aayog?
Answer
B. Prime Minister
97
Name the Bengal Nawab who was defeated by the British in the Battle plassey
Answer
C. Siraj-ud-daula
98
Name the British viceroy who announced the Partition of Bengal in 1905?
Answer
D. Lord Curzon
99
Who is called the ‘Father of Modern Indian Renaissance’?
Answer
D. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
100
From which country India adopted the Five year plans
Answer
A. Russia
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