| Post Name | Veterinary Surgeon Grade.II - Animal Husbandry |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 005/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 068/2024 |
| Date of Test | 22 January 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Point of hock in horse is formed by
Answer
D. Tuber calcis
2
Right atrium of heart in ox is characterized by i. Trabeculae carnae ii. Musculi pectinati iii. Coronary sinus iv. Supraventricular crest
Answer
B. Only ii and iii
3
The structures which are included in the spermatic cord in bull is i. Cremaster internus muscle ii. Cremater externus muscle iii. Vas deferens iv. Testicular artery
Answer
C. Only i, iii and iv
4
Which among the following organs are lined by stratified squamous epithelium ? i. Oesophagus ii. Reticulum iii. Abomasum iv. Colon
Answer
A. Only i and ii
5
Aldosterone act on distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct of nephron. i. It increases sodium absorption. ii. It increases postassium absorption. iii. It increases sodium excretion. iv. It increases potassium excretion. Which all above statements about aldosterone action on DCT are correct ?
Answer
C. Both i and iv are correct
6
SA node is the pacemaker of heart because i. SA node has large number of voltage gated sodium ion channels. ii. SA node has large number of potassium leaky channels. iii. SA node has a lower RMP compared to other cardiac cells. iv. SA node has large number of sodium leaky channels. Out of the above statements which all statements are correct ?
Answer
D. Both iii and iv are correct
7
Sickle cell anemia is due to
Answer
C. Alteration in beta chain of globin
8
Fovea centralis is a small pit in retina i. It consists of densely packed rods. ii. It is a spot of colour vision. iii. It consists of densely packed cones. iv. It is a spot of dim light vision. Out of the above statements which all statements are wrong ?
Answer
C. Both i and iv are wrong
9
Chemical that act as energy buffer in muscle is creatine phosphate. Which statement about creatine phosphate is wrong ?
Answer
C. Creatine phosphate help ATP to ADP conversion
10
Which milk component determines the volume of milk ?
Answer
A. Lactose
11
Protein content in Colostrum of Cow's milk is
Answer
C. 14.3%
12
On which day of incubation chicken eggs are candled to remove infertile eggs?
Answer
Question Cancelled
13
African elephants are different from Asian elephants on the following : i. Ears ii. Tusk
Answer
C. Both i and ii are correct
14
Ideal depth of Manger for a dairy cow is
Answer
Question Cancelled
15
Total number of permanent premolar and molar teeth present in white cattle
Answer
B. 24
16
Back pressure test is an ideal method for heat detection in
Answer
D. Pigs
17
Crutching is a managemental practice followed in
Answer
D. Sheep breeding
18
Moisture content of Hay is
Answer
C. 15%
19
Quantity of Urea required to enrich 1000 kg of paddy straw
Answer
Question Cancelled
20
'Kambala' sport involves the following species of livestock and poultry
Answer
Question Cancelled
21
Name the amphistome species in which distinct genital sucker surrounds genital pore is
Answer
B. Cotylophoron cotylophorum
22
In sheep, nodular enteritis is a characteristic feature of infection with
Answer
D. Stilesia globipunctata
23
Assertion (A) : Sheep that have already exposed for infection with Oesophagostomum columbianum, nodules are formed in colon. Reason (R) : Marked immune reaction take place around the larva in mucosa during migration and eventually more nodules are formed in colon, while few adult worms are seen in colon.
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
24
"Sweet itch" in horses is due to the secretion of saliva of
Answer
C. Culicoides robertsi
25
Nasopharyngeal myiasis in animals is caused by the larvae of
Answer
D. Both (2) and (3)
26
In Hepatozoon canis, the appearance of meronts in tissues is described as
Answer
C. Wheel spoke
27
Assertion (A) : Faecal examination is unsuitable for diagnosing caecal coccidiosis in fowl. Reason (R) : Oocysts are typically excreted in faeces around 7 days post- infection(dpi), whereas peak heamorrhage and mortality occur around 4 days post- infection(dpi).
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
28
The following database/s is/are considered as Nuceleic acid database: i. National Center for Biotechnology Information (NCBI) ii. EMBL database iii. DNA data bank of Japan iv. SWISS-PROT
Answer
C. Only (i, ii and iii)
29
Glasser's disease in Swine is caused by
Answer
A. Haemophilus parasuis
30
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Dimorphic fungi ? i. Sporotrhrix schenckii exhibits cigar shaped yeast form at 35-37°C. ii. Coccidioides immitis forms Macro and Microconidia at 25-30°C. iii. Histoplasma capsulatum var. farciminosum forms spherical sporangia called spherules contains hundreds of endospores. iv. Histoplasmosis can be serodiagnosed by Histoplasmin skin test.
Answer
Question Cancelled
31
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Reoviridae virus family ? i. Reoviridae viruses are non-enveloped and icosahedral symmetry in nature. ii. The genus Orbivirus, Rotavirus and Coltivirus has 10, 11 and 12 segments or RNA genome respectively. iii. Culicoides species act as a biological vector for the transmission to Bluetongue virus and African Horse sickness virus. iv. Reoviridae family viruses having single stranded RNA viral genome.
Answer
D. Only (i, ii and iii)
32
The following influenza virus subtype/s is/are responsible for causing Equine Influenza in Horse i. H7N7 ii. H1N1 iii. H3N8 iv. H5N1
Answer
B. Only (i and iii)
33
Which of the following statements is/are correct about IgA antibody ? i. IgA antibody does not have a hinge region, instead it has an additional fourth constant Domain ( ii. IgA antibody is transported on to mucosal secretions through epithelial cells with the help of secretory component. iii. Polymeric immunoglobulin receptor (plgR) is also called secretory component. iv. plgR protects the IgA antibody from digestion by intestinal protease enzyme.
Answer
D. Only (ii, iii and iv)
34
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Lymphnode ? i. B cells predominantly populated in the Cortex area. ii. T cells predominantly populated in the Paracortex area. iii. Lymphnodes traps the antigens carried in the blood stream. iv. Immunoglobulin class switching and memory cell formation takes place in the Germinal Center.
Answer
C. Only (i, ii and iv)
35
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about acute inflammation ? i. The most common mechanism responsible for increased vascular permeability is the formation of endothelial gaps in post capillary venules. ii. The most common mechanism responsible for increased vascular permeability is the formation of endothelial gaps in capillaries. iii. Formation of endothelial gaps in arterioles is the most common mechanism responsible for increased vascular permeability. iv. Leukotrienes are more potent chemical mediators than histamine in producing increased vascular permeability.
Answer
B. Both (i) and (iv)
36
During the necropsy of a pig, diffuse distribution of inflammatory lesions involving all lobes of lungs was observed. On incision, the cut surface of the lungs had meaty appearance. Microscopic examination revealed the presence of hyaline membrane and hyperplasia of type II pneumocytes in lungs. The animal was suffering from ________ type of pneumonia.
Answer
C. Interstitial pneumonia
37
Examine the statements about hog cholera. i. After entry into the susceptible animals, primary replication of the virus occurs in retropharyngeal lymph nodes. ii. The virus damages both epithelial and endothelial cells. iii. Splenic infarct is distinctive necropsy finding. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer
D. Statement (i) is false and statement (ii) is true
38
Microscopic examination of a biopsy sample from oral cavity of a dog revealed neoplastic epithelial cells infiltrating into submucosa through the basement membrane of mucosa and occur as nests and trabeculae in the submucosa. Neoplastic cells showed marked anisocytosis, anisokaryosis, increased nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio, marked pleomorphism, mitotic figures and disorderly maturation of epithelial cells. Diagnose the conditon.
Answer
C. Carcinoma
39
Examine the following lesions in chickens and choose your diagnosis i. Caseous exudate in trachea, bronchial bifurcation and air sacs. ii. Swollen and pale kidneys with tubules distended with urates. iii. Reduced length and weight of the oviduct. iv. Curling and dwarfing of the chicken embryo.
Answer
B. Infectious bronchitis
40
Examine the following statements about the bacterial diseases in rabbits and choose the most appropriate answer. i. Pneumonia is the most common manifestation of the rabbit pasteurellosis. ii. In Tyzzer's disease, the characteristic lesions are predominantly seen in lungs. iii. Treponematosis is characterised mainly by systemic infections.
Answer
D. Statement (i), (ii) and (iii) are false
41
In metazoonoses type III subgroup, the hosts involved in the transmission of infectious agent are i. Vertebrate host ii. Invertebrate host iii. Invertebrate host, vertebrate host and non-animate substance
Answer
C. Both i and ii
42
Casoni's test is used to diagnose
Answer
A. Hydatidosis
43
Bagassosis is a disease condition caused by inhalation of
Answer
A. Sugar cane dust
44
The animal which is considered as an amplifier host for Japanese encephalitis virus is
Answer
B. Pig
45
Scrub typhus is a zoonotic rickettsial illness which is transmitted by
Answer
C. Mites
46
An occurrence of a disease in excess of its anticipated frequency is called
Answer
A. Epidemic
47
An observational study in which a group of animals exposed to a hypothesised risk factor is compared with an unexposed group to record the development of disease in each group is called as
Answer
B. Cohort study
48
ISO 14000 is related to
Answer
B. Environment management
49
According to Bio-Medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules 2016, waste sharps including metals are segregated in ___________ colour coded containers.
Answer
C. White
50
Which among the following statements is incorrect with respect to Kyasanur forest disease ?
Answer
A. It is zoonotic disease caused by highly infectious mosquito borne bacteria
51
The following are five events in meiotic cell division in eukaryotes. Arrange them in the correct order of occurrence during the meiotic cell division. i. Chromosomes appear as long single threads ii. Synapiss iii. Crossing over iv. Movement of chiasmata along the length of chromosome v. Replication of DNA and histones
Answer
D. (v, i, ii, iii and iv)
52
When a character in human beings is more common in men than in women, rarely appears in both father and son and does not occur in women unless her father exhibits it, what inference can be drawn about the gene involved based on the pattern of inheritance described ?
Answer
B. Sex-linked recessive gene
53
The Hardy-Weinberg law states that gene and genotype frequencies remain constant under certain conditions. Which of the following is NOT a required condition for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium ? i. No migration occurs in the population. ii. Random mating takes place. iii. Fertility and viability differ among genotypes. iv. The population size is small.
Answer
C. Only (iii and iv)
54
Which of the following is true regarding the selection of dairy animals ? i. Genetic variability is the raw material for artificial selection. ii. High-intensity selection can lead to inbreeding in small populations. iii. The selection will be more accurate when the heritability of the trait is high. iv. Artificial insemination helps achieve a higher intensity of selection.
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii, iii and iv)
55
When a large number of lines or individuals are crossed in all combinations, the mean performance of a line in all its crosses, expressed as deviation from the overall mean of crosses is called
Answer
A. General combining ability of the line
56
Which of the following statements accurately explains the poor quality of straw ? i. Formation of bonds between lignin and structural polysaccharides. ii. Low digestibility. iii. Deficient in minerals, proteins, vitamins and fatty acids. iv. High silica content.
Answer
C. All of the above (i, ii, iii and iv)
57
Which of the following are essential characteristics of good-quality silage ? i. High lactic acid content. ii. Low pH (around 3.5 to 4.5). iii. Presence of butyric acid in significant amounts. iv. Absence of mould spoilage.
Answer
B. Only (i, ii and iv)
58
Which of the following are true about feeding standards in animal nutrition ? i. Morrison's feeding standard averages were initially used for Indian livestock. ii. The Scandinavian standard uses feed units for formulation. iii. The National Research Council (NRC) feeding standards utilize metabolizable energy and Net Energy Systems for specific purposes like maintenance, growth and lactation. iv. The Starch Equivalent System is associated with the Kellner Feeding Standard.
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii, iii and iv)
59
Which of the following conditions must be met for urea to be used effectively as a protein replacer in ruminants ? i. The diet should include adequate soluble carbohydrate sources for efficient utilisation of urea. ii. Ruminants must be gradually adapted to urea to avoid toxicity. iii. Urea can be added at the rate of 30% of the concentrate mixture since the ruminant's natural feed also contains 30% of the nitrogen as non-protein nitrogenous substances. iv. Urea is suitable as a protein replacer in poultry and pigs.
Answer
A. Only (i and ii)
60
What is the primary cause of crazy chick disease in poultry ?
Answer
B. Deficiency of vitamin E
61
Duration of the "fertilization period" in dogs following the LH surge.
Answer
B. 4-7 days
62
On which days of a normal oestrous cycle is gonadotrophin treatment typically initiated for optimum response in MOET in cattle ?
Answer
C. Days 9-14
63
Which reproductive phase in cattle is characterized by low FSH, high LH and high inhibin levels as endocrine requirements for follicular growth ?
Answer
C. Dominance
64
Which agent is used as a 'holding injection' to treat infertility in cattle caused by luteal deficiency ?
Answer
B. LH
65
Which characteristic defines Class II anoestrus in cattle ?
Answer
C. Bilateral inactive ovaries
66
In cows, starting the Ovsynch protocol during which stage of the oestrous cycle increases the probability of synchronization and conception ?
Answer
B. Days 5 to 9 of the cycle
67
Which of the following statements about hydrallantois in cattle is incorrect ?
Answer
C. The foetus and palcentomes are easily palpable during rectal examination in cases of hydrallantois.
68
Which of the following is not true regarding pseudopregnancy is cats ?
Answer
C. Associated with behavioural changes or lactation
69
Which condition in cattle is associated with adopting a "Rocking Horse Stance" ?
Answer
A. Uterine torsion
70
Which hypothalamic nucleus is not involved in the tonic release of gonadotropins ?
Answer
D. Preoptic nucleus
71
One of the following fact is not true about oral route of administration
Answer
B. Strongly electrolyte or highly polar drugs are absorbed through oral route very efficiently
72
The important parameter for measuring the bioavailability is
Answer
A. Area Under Curve (AUC)
73
Succinylcholine
Answer
A. Is a depolarizing muscle relaxant
74
Assertion reason type : Assertion (A) : Xylazine is much more potent sedative in cattle than other species. Reason (R) : Ruminants are more sensitive to α agonist. Select your answer.
Answer
C. (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
75
Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
Answer
A. β -Receptor agonist : Increased rate and force of contraction of heart
76
Local anaesthetics work by
Answer
C. Blocking the voltage gated sodium channel
77
Match the following : a. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors 1. Inhibition of – co-transporters and thus reabsorption of at distal tubule b. Osmotic diuretics 2. Blocks the function of – – symporter c. Thiazide diuretics 3. Reduces the number of hydrogen ions available for exchange by inhibiting Carbonic anhydrase enzyme d. Loop diuretics 4. Limiting the tubular reabsorption of water and electrolyte
Answer
D. a - 3 b - 4 c -1 d - 2
78
One of the following drugs is not used as specific respiratory stimulant
Answer
C. Yohimbine
79
Match the following : a. Carbapenem 1. Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomal subunit b. Tetracycline 2. Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 50s ribosomal subunit c. Azithromycin 3. Inhibit the replication of bacterial DNA by interfering with action of DNA gyrase d. Enrofloxacin 4. Disrupt the cell wall by binding to penicillin binding proteins
Answer
B. a - 4 b - 1 c - 2 d - 3
80
Assertion reason type : Assertion (A) : Viral DNA polymerase is inhibited 10-30 times more than the host DNA polymerase by Aciclovir. Reason (R) : Herpes thymidine kinase is more selective for conversion of acyclovir to the active metabolite acyclovir-monophosphate. Select your answer.
Answer
C. (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
81
The basic concept of extension education is to bring behavioural change in the people on desirable lines i. Only knowledge ii. Skill and attitude iii. Knowledge, attitude, skill and action
Answer
D. Only (iii)
82
Which of the statement is/are correct about Vandenbergh test ? i. Test estimates the concentration of serum bilirubin. ii. Conjugated bilirubin reacts directly with test reagents to produce color change. iii. Color development is observed at 550nm optical density.
Answer
A. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
83
Select the choice of order of steps in Extension Teaching Process. i. Attention − Desire – Interest − Conviction – Action – Satisfaction ii. Interest – Desire – Attention – Conviction – Satisfaction – Action iii. Attention – Interest – Desire – Conviction – Action – Satisfaction
Answer
B. Only (iii)
84
Which of the statement is/are correct about Blood Neutrophils ? i. Neutrophils constitutes 40% and 60% of total leukocyte population in ruminants and monogastric species. ii. Neutrophils remain in circulation for only 8 hours and are phagocytic and microbicidal in activity. iii. Viral infections increases blood neutrophils count.
Answer
B. Only (ii)
85
Suresh is the owner of the enterprise and this type is called as i. Sole proprietor ii. Joint company iii. Public-sector company iv. Combined company
Answer
A. Only (i)
86
Surgical treatment options for the management of cranial cruciate ligament rupture in dog is i. Paatsama technique ii. Trochlear Wedge resection sulcoplasty iii. Tibial Plateau Levelling Osteotomy
Answer
C. Only (i and iii)
87
Which among the following is/are true about Hip Dysplasia in dogs ? i. Juvenile Public Symphysiodesis is a surgery done as a prophylactic treatment in hip dysplsia. ii. Coxa valga is one in which the normal angulation of neck of femur with the shaft is increased. iii. When the femur head is unusally broad, it is called Legg-Perthes' disease.
Answer
Question Cancelled
88
First intention wound healing takes place when
Answer
D. All the above
89
Which among the flowing is/are true regarding type of fracture ? i. Depression fracture normally occurs in the vertebral column. ii. Greenstick fracture is an incomplete fracture . iii. Colle's fracture occur in the distal radius.
Answer
C. Only (ii and iii)
90
Telazol is a combination of
Answer
B. Dissociative anaestheic and a tranquilizer
91
Which among the following is/are true in veterinary radiology ? i. The part-film distance is zero. ii. The minimum KVP required to produce x rays is 40. iii. The counteract heel effect, thinner part of the body of the patient should be positioned towards the cathode.
Answer
B. Only (i and ii)
92
Which among the following is/are true regarding suturing techniques ? i. Double breasting suture pattern is followed for uniting the cut ends of nerves. ii. Bunnel mayer suture is employed in tendon suturing. iii. Figure of eight suture can be used for closing laparotomy incision.
Answer
C. Only (ii and iii)
93
The condition in which the bulbar conjunctiva is adherent to the palpebral conjunctiva of the eye is called as
Answer
B. Symblepharon
94
Billroth II technique in dogs involves
Answer
B. Gastrojejunostomy
95
Which among the following is/are true about epidural anaesthesia ? i. Medicine used for giving epidural anaesthesia is lignocaine 2%. ii. When sacrococcygeal site is selected for epidural anaesthesia in cattle, it is called high epidural. iii. The epidural anaesthesia site in goat is lumbosacral.
Answer
C. Only (i and iii)
96
Correlate the type of adulteration of milk with its corresponding qualitative tests.
Answer
D. c, d, b, a
97
Find out the right combination of the species of milk from its nutritive composition. Species: I. Human Milk; II. Cow’s Milk; III. Buffalo’s Milk; IV. Goat’s Milk. Protein: i. 4.3%; ii. 1.1%; iii. 3.6%; iv. 3.2%. Fat: a. 4.0%; b. 4.5%; c. 9.0%; d. 3.0%.
Answer
Question Cancelled
98
Identify the right match of the relevant dairy products based on method of processing.
Answer
B. iv, i, ii, iii
99
Gelatin is produced from a. Calcined bones b. Inedible bones c. Edible bones d. Inedible cartilage
Answer
Question Cancelled
100
The major phosphoglycoprotein of egg white is a. Ovalbumin b. Ovamucin c. Ovoglobulin d. Conalbumin
Answer
C. a
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