| Post Name | Veterinary Surgeon Grade II - Animal Husbandry |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 035/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 404/2024 |
| Date of Test | 3 April 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following statements is /are correct with respect to their action in relation to respiration? i. Diaphragm is the principal muscle of inspiration. ii. Transversus thoracis is an inspiratory muscle. iii. External intercostal muscles are inspiratory muscles
Answer
C. i and iii
2
Among the following cranial nerves which nerve is/are motor in function? i. Trochlear nerve ii. Hypoglossal nerve iii. Auditory nerve
Answer
A. i and ii
3
Foetal membrane that serves as a storage space for renal waste during the development of domestic animals is
Answer
B. Allantois
4
Atlanto-axial joint is an example of
Answer
A. Uni-axial/Trochoid joint
5
What will be the pH of 0.01 N sodium hydroxide?
Answer
B. 12
6
Which of the following is true regarding vertebrate eye? i. It is a ļ¬uid ļ¬lled structure enclosed by the three layers - schlera, cornea and retina. ii. Vitreous humour is important in maintaining the shape of the eye and is the sole supplier of nutrients to the lens and retina. iii. Vertebrate retina is well vascularized and contain an outer pigmented layer and inner nervous tissue layer. iv. Changes in pupillary size can be induced by conditions other than light.
Answer
D. iv
7
Which of the following features help mammalian RBC to transport O2 eļ¬ciently? i. Biconcave shape which provides larger surface area for diļ¬usion. ii. Thin and rigid plasma membrane that helps rapid diļ¬usion. iii. Iron atoms of the respiratory pigments that reversibility bind to O2. iv. Stuļ¬ng of the cell with respiratory pigments excluding all other organelle.
Answer
C. i, iii and iv only
8
Statement : In a ļ¬ght or ļ¬ight situation epinephrine promotes glycogen breakdown in liver and skeletal muscle producing glucose and pyruvate/lactate, respectively Reason : Skeletal muscle does not have glucose 6 phosphatase and any glucose 6 phosphate produced undergo glycolysis to produce pyruvate or lactate. i. Both statements and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for the statement. ii. Statement is correct but reason is incorrect iii. Statement is incorrect but the facts gives in reason are correct. iv. Both statement and reason are incorrect.
Answer
A. i
9
Which of the following statements are NOT TRUE regarding ketone bodies? i. Acetate, acetocetate and beta hydroxyl butyrate are the three ketone bodies. ii. In all animals including cattle ketone bodies can be synthesized in the liver only. iii. Rothera's test can be used detect ketone bodies in urine. iv. Spoilt silage can cause ketosis in cattle.
Answer
A. i and ii
10
When fused with the plasma membrane (PM), lipids located in the inner leaļ¬et of the vesicles formed from the trans Golgi can be seen in
Answer
B. Outer leaļ¬et of PM
11
Which one of the following statement(s) are correct regarding Crossbred cattle in India? i. The population of the total Exotic/ Crossbred cattle has increased by about 30% as per the latest census. ii. About 30% of the total milk production in the country is contributed by crossbred cattle. iii. The all-India average yield of crossbred animals was 10.77 kg per animal per day in 2022-23. iv. The state-wise average yield of crossbred animals is highest in Kerala, making it the leading state in this category.
Answer
A. Only i and ii
12
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the characteristic features of buļ¬aloes compared to cattle? i. The skin is 2-3 times thicker than cattle. ii. The hair density is about 1/10th of cattle. iii. Sweat glands are more in number in buļ¬aloes. iv. Digestion of ļ¬bre is comparatively more in buļ¬aloes
Answer
D. Only i, ii and iv
13
Which of the following is NOT an advantage(s) of the tail-to-tail system of housing cattle? i. Easy milking and cleaning. ii. Animals can get more fresh air from outside the house iii. Chance of disease transmission is less iv. Feeding of the animals is very easy
Answer
B. Only iv
14
Identify the correctly matched pair(s). i. Kankrej-Iyre shaped horns. ii. Gir-half-moon appearance of horns iii. Surti-sickle shaped horns iv. Nagpuri-sword shaped horns
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii, iii and iv)
15
Which of the following are risk factors for nutritional anemia in piglets? i. Ineļ¬cient placental transfer of iron from sows to piglets. ii. Ineļ¬cient transfer of iron into mother's milk. iii. Rearing on concrete ļ¬oors, resulting in poor access to soil. iv. High growth rate in piglets. v. Inherent defect in iron metabolism in piglets.
Answer
C. Only i, ii, iii and iv
16
Assertion (A) : Fodder maize should be cut at the tasseling to the wax- ripe stage for use as green fodder. Reason (R) : The crude protein content of maize is maximum at the tasseling to wax-ripe stage.
Answer
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
17
Identify the incorrectly matched pair(s) i. Black Bengal - the most proliļ¬c breed of goat ii. Garole - proliļ¬c breed of sheep iii Barbari - proliļ¬c and non-seasonal breed of goat iv. Chokla - ļ¬ne carpet quality ļ¬eece
Answer
D. None of the above (i, ii, iii and iv)
18
Analyse the following statements regarding the management of layer chickens under Phase I of production and identify which one(s) is/are incorrect: i. Spiking is essential to maintain optimum productivity. ii. A photo period of 14-16 hours is required for maximum egg production. iii. Minimum 2.5% calcium should be in the layer feed.
Answer
C. Only i and iii
19
Which statement(s) is/are true about the nutritional management of poultry? i. Vitamin A deļ¬ciency can lead to the formation of blood spots in eggs. ii. Protein deļ¬ciency can result in pecking/cannibalism. iii. Riboļ¬avin deļ¬ciency results in curled toe paralysis. iv. Star gazing condition is due to ascorbic acid deļ¬ciency.
Answer
A. Only i, ii, iii
20
Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Animal Welfare Board of India?
Answer
B. It was started under the stewardship of Smt. Maneka Gandhi
21
A farmer reports reduced weight gain and poor feed conversion in his herd of cattle. Upon clinical examination, you ļ¬nd submandibular oedema, pale mucous membranes and weakness. On faceal sample examination, strongyle ova (++++) could be detected. Based on this information, which is the most likely causative parasite?
Answer
B. Haemonchus contortus
22
Solenophagy is a type of feeding seen in
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
23
Gid is caused by the larval stages of
Answer
A. T. multiceps
24
Autoinfection is seen in
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
25
Infection with ascarids is not seen in
Answer
B. Goat
26
Pouched amphistomes, a group of parasitic trematodes found in cattle, exhibit distinct morphological and biological features. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding their life cycle, pathology or control?
Answer
D. Eļ¬ective control of pouched amphistomes relies solely on the use of broad- spectrum anthelmintics targeting adult stages in host
27
Which of the following statements about Diroļ¬laria species and their signiļ¬cance in veterinary and zoonotic parasitology is correct?
Answer
B. Diroļ¬laria repens commonly causes subcutaneous infections in dogs and zoonotic infections in humans, with mosquitoes serving as biological vectors.
28
Choose the correct statement/statements on lumpy skin disease (LSD) i. Buļ¬aloes are reservoir host for LSD virus. ii Sheep pox, goat pox and LSD viruses are serologically distinguishable iii. Moth eaten appearance on the monolayer cell culture is characteristic CPE of LSD virus. iv. Local skin reaction at the vaccination site (skin nodules) and a temporal reduction of the milk yield is referred to as "Neethling disease" or "Neethling response".
Answer
B. i, ii and iv are correct, ii is wrong
29
Among the following diagnostic tests, the results of which one can be visualized by ordinary light microscopy?
Answer
D. Immunohistochemistry
30
In order to apply for a patent, an inventor must
Answer
A. File an application at a patent oļ¬ce which must comply with formal and technical requirements
31
Wood's lamp technique can be employed for the diagnosis of
Answer
D. Microsporum canis
32
Identify the mismatched statement on microbial biotechnology
Answer
A. Technique Purpose / reagent used DNA sequencing Maxam-Gilbert chain termination method
33
Identify the incorrect statement on Avian inļ¬uenza (AI)/AI virus
Answer
A. It is a negative sense RNA virus, enveloped, cubical symmetry, consist of segmented genome (7-8 segments)
34
The region located between the hypervariable regions of the variable domains of immunoglobulins are called
Answer
B. Frame work region
35
Rabies is a fatal zoonotic disease causing ____________ in brain.
Answer
C. Chronic lymphomonocytic perivascular inļ¬ammation
36
The exact sequence of events in acute cell swelling caused by hypoxia is 1. Deļ¬ciency of O2 2. Decrease oxidative phosphorylation and ATP 3. Failure pump 4. Increased glycolysis, increased intracellular lactate and depletion of glycogen stores
Answer
B. 1, 2, 4, 3
37
Which of the following sentence is/are correct about Metaplasia? i. Metaplasia is often but not always an adaptive change to withstand adverse environmental conditions ii. Metaplasia is irreversible even if the cause is removed
Answer
A. Only i
38
Which of the following reasons is the most appropriate for the statement given below? Statement : Anthrax cases are not normally necropsied Reason : i. Anthrax aļ¬ected animals show no lesions, so necropsy will not reveal any clue regarding cause of death. ii. Since it is zoonotic the individuals may contract the disease while touching the aļ¬ecting carcass. iii. Since it is zoonotic, the organisms directly enter the respiratory tract of the individual conducting necropsy. iv. Since the necropsy will enhance sporulation or exposure to air the resistant bacterial spores can contaminate the environment.
Answer
B. iv
39
Statement No. 1 : African swine fever is more severe compared to classical swine fever. Statement No. 2 : It is diļ¬cult to diļ¬erentiate between the two diseases from the gross lesions alone.
Answer
A. Both statement are correct
40
Anaemia in Theileriosis is caused by
Answer
D. All the above
41
Four types of C. Botulimum toxins that aļ¬ects man are
Answer
D. A, B, E, F
42
Detection and treatment of diseases promptly, in order to prolong life is
Answer
C. Secondary prevention
43
Which among the following is indicative of bacterial density in milk?
Answer
B. Pyruvate test
44
Which of the following regents could detect bruising in animals?
Answer
C. Trichloracetic acid
45
Introduction of genetically engineered microbe to metabolise contaminants in the soil is called
Answer
C. Bioaugmentation
46
Dysgonic fermenter is used as synonym for
Answer
D. Capnocytophagacanimorsus
47
An obligate intracellular coccobacilus occurs in huge concentration in placenta causing abortion in infected cattle
Answer
C. Coxiella
48
ISO standards which enables organization to put in place a food safety management system that helps them improve their overall performance when its comes to food safety
Answer
A. ISO 22000
49
Ringa-ringa roses - the popular nursery rhyme portrays the disease
Answer
C. Plague
50
____________ is called the father of White revolutuion.
Answer
A. Varghese Kurien
51
Which measure of central tendency is the most aļ¬ected by extreme values?
Answer
A. Mean
52
What is the role of DNA polymerase in DNA replication?
Answer
B. Synthesizing new DNA strands
53
In a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the dominant allele (A) in a bi-allelic locus is 0.7. What is the expected frequency of heterozygotes (Aa)?
Answer
C. 0.42
54
What does heritability estimate indicate in quantitative genetics?
Answer
B. The proportion of pheotypic variation due to additive genetic variance
55
What is the primary consequence of inbreeding in animal populations?
Answer
C. Increased homozygosity and expression of deleterious traits
56
As per the current breeding policy for buļ¬aloes in Kerala, which of the following breed is used for grading-up?
Answer
C. Murrah
57
The biotechnological tool used to produce sex-sorted semen is
Answer
A. Flow cytometry
58
Which of the following basis of selection is the most suitable for improving traits with high heritability, in livestock?
Answer
C. Individual selection
59
What does gene frequency refer to in a population?
Answer
B. The proportion of a speciļ¬c allele of a gene, compared to the total number of alleles for that gene, present in a population
60
Robertsonian translocation in cattle involves
Answer
B. The fusion of two acrocentric chromosomes at their centromeres
61
The term 'static fetal cadavers' denotes
Answer
B. Mummiļ¬ed fetus in cattle
62
Lunaas test for pregnancy diagnosis in mare detects
Answer
B. The presence of estrogen in urine
63
The placenta with green border is seen in
Answer
D. Canines
64
Statement 1 : Interferon tau is produced by trophoblastic cells of blastocyst in cow. Statement 2 : Interferon tau inhibit the production of oxytocin receptors in endometrium so that maternal recognition of pregnancy occurs.
Answer
C. Both the statements are correct
65
Select the correct answer i. The longest stage of oestrous cycle in cattle is diestrum. ii. The estrum is well deļ¬ned in bovines iii. The maternal recognition of pregnancy occurs during metestrum in bovines. iv. The proestrum is well deļ¬ned with stringy mucus discharge in bovines
Answer
A. Statement i and ii are correct, iii and iv are wrong
66
The most accurate method to diagnose freemartin in cow is
Answer
C. Demonstration of sex chromosome chimerism in lymphocytes
67
Select the mutation operation(s) in bovines i. Repulsion ii. Rotation iii. Version iv. Traction
Answer
C. i, ii and iii only correct
68
Most mycotic abortions occurs during ____________ in cows.
Answer
B. 5-7th month of gestation
69
Select the correct statement i. The postpartum discharge in farm animals is also called as 'secundus'. ii. The primipara usually voids more postpartum discharge than pluripara. iii. The normal colour of postpartum discharge is greenish yellow. iv. Normal postpartum discharge has to odour
Answer
B. i and iv are correct
70
The ovarian bursa is ļ¬lled with fat in
Answer
A. Bitch
71
Causative agent of the disease Psittacine beak and feather disease (PFBD) in exotic birds is
Answer
B. Virus
72
Tactile percussion is an important physical examination method used in diagnosis of which disease condition in dogs?
Answer
D. Ascites
73
Polioencephalomalacia in goats characterised by nystagmus, muscle tremor and loss of appetite is due to deļ¬ciency of
Answer
C. Thiamine
74
Intentionally giving false evidence in judicial proceedings is punishable under which section?
Answer
A. IPC Section 193
75
Intracytoplamic oesinophilic inclusion bodies seen in pyramidal cells of the hippocampus and Purkinje cells of the cerebellum known as Nigri body is associated with which of the following disease?
Answer
B. Rabies
76
Which among the following is incorrect about carbamate insecticide poisoning in animals? i. Carbamates are reversible inhibitors of acetylcholine esterase. ii. Oximes are contraindicaed in the treatment of carbamate poisoning. iii. Atropine and oximes are antidotes for the treatment of carbamate poisoning.
Answer
D. iii only
77
Aminoglycoside antibiotics produce following adverse eļ¬ects
Answer
D. All the above
78
Which among the following is a proton pump inhibitor that can be used in antiulcer treatment?
Answer
B. Omeprazole
79
N-Methyl-D-aspartate receptor antogonist which is used to produce dissociative anaesthesia in animals?
Answer
C. Ketamine
80
The phase II drug conjugation enzymes which is deļ¬cient in cats is
Answer
A. Glucuronyl transferase
81
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Panchayath Raj in India? i. Democratic Decentralization was recommended in 1957 by the committed led by Balvantray G Mehta. ii. 73rd constitutional amendment laid Panchayati Raj on ļ¬rm footing iii. Gram Sabha is an assembly of elected ward members of gram panchayath
Answer
C. Only i and ii
82
Which of the following statement is/are false about Rashtriya Gokul Mission? i. Sex-sorted semen technology and genomic selection are not recommended under RGM. ii. Government veterinary universities are included as implementing agencies under RGM. iii. RGM is a sub-scheme of NLM
Answer
B. Only i and iii
83
Which of the following statement is/are correct about MSME? i. In case of medium enterprises, investment in plant and machinery or equipment is not more than Rs. 50 crore and annual turnover is not more than Rs. 100 crore. ii. In case of small enterprises, investment in plant and machinery or equipment is not more than Rs. 10 crore and annual turnover is not more than Rs. 50 crore. iii. In case microenterprises, investment in plant and machinery or equipment is not more than Rs. 1 crore and annual turnover is not more than Rs. 5 crore.
Answer
A. Only ii and iii
84
Which of the following statement is/are false about Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana? i. Mahila Kissan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana (MKSP) is a sub-schemes of Rastriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY). ii. MKSP was launched by the union ministry of ļ¬sheries, animal husbandry and dairying. iii. MKSP is a sub-schemes of DAY-NRLM.
Answer
C. Only i and ii
85
Which of the following statement is/are false about 20th livestock census? i. Pig population in the state showed an increase of 86.19% over previous census. ii. Livestock population in Kerala showed an increase of 4.8% over previous census. iii. Buļ¬alo population has shown a decrease of 1.06% over the previous census.
Answer
A. Only ii and iii
86
The critical level of bacterial load resulting in wound infection is
Answer
A. bacteria/gram of tissue
87
The most severe form of peripheral nerve damage is called as
Answer
A. Neurotmesis
88
In dogs the risk of mammary tumour can be reduced if ovariohysterectomy is performed
Answer
B. Before the ļ¬rst oestrus
89
The prophylactic antibiotics are used
Answer
C. Immediately prior to prolonged surgery
90
The best suitable suture material for intraoral tissue closure after maxillary / mandibular surgery.
Answer
D. Polydiaxanone
91
The two characteristics of second intension wound healing are
Answer
A. Epithelialisation and skin contraction
92
The commonly tranquilizer in veterinary practice is
Answer
A. Acepromazine
93
During total ear canal ablation in dogs the nerve to be avoided is
Answer
B. Facial nerve
94
The resection of portion of skull without replacement is termed as
Answer
D. Craniectomy
95
The premature closure of distal ulnar physis due to trauma results in
Answer
B. Lateral deviation of the carpus
96
Which of the following breeds of pig are highly susceptible to the eļ¬ects of stress? i. Poland China ii. Pietrain. iii. Large white Yorkshire
Answer
C. i and ii only
97
Which of the following proteolytic enzymes are of plant origin? i. Papain. ii. Calpain iii. Ficin iv. cathepsin
Answer
C. i and iii
98
Isinglass is the gelatine obtained from
Answer
B. Fish bladdar
99
Egg shell powder is rich in
Answer
A. Calcium carbonate
100
In smoking of meat and meat products, the wood used produces the smoke by following the process called
Answer
C. Pyrolysis
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