| Post Name | Welfare Officer Gr II - Prisons and Correctional Services |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 163/2025 |
| Category Code | 374/2024, 437/2024 |
| Date of Test | 2 December 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
What is the primary purpose of social group work?
Answer
B. To enhance social functioning and mutual support among group members
2
Which of the following is NOT a principle of social group work?
Answer
D. Economic Independence
3
Which of the following is NOT an objective of social group work?
Answer
D. To promote individual competition among group members
4
The Directive Principles of State Policy are legally enforceable by courts.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Answer
B. 2 and 3 only
5
Which of the following is the most challenging aspect of the intake process in social
group work?
Answer
D. Establishing initial rapport with group members
6
Which of the following roles is least likely to be performed by a group worker during the
problem-solving process?
Answer
B. Imposing solutions to group problems
7
According to Bruce Tuckman’s model, which stage of group development is characterized
by conflict and competition as group members vie for positions and struggle with
working together?
Answer
B. Storming
8
According to Wilmot and Hocker, which of the following is NOT a common cause of
conflict?
Answer
D. Equal power distribution
9
Which of the following is NOT a stage in the community organization process as outlined
by Murray G. Ross?
Answer
B. Executive decision-making without community input
10
In the context of social planning, which of the following is LEAST likely to be considered
a key component of the process?
Answer
C. Randomized control trials to test hypotheses
11
Match the following concepts with their definitions :
Concepts Definitions
(1) Policy
Answer
A. The process of distributing available resources to
Implementation various programs and services
(2) Resource Allocation
12
Which of the following best describes the method of social work administration?
Answer
A. ‘‘A method of managing social services and coordinating various programs
and resources to achieve and objectives’’
13
Which of the following is NOT typically considered a core task in social work
administration?
Answer
B. Direct provision of therapeutic services
14
In social work administration, which principles emphasizes the importance of involving
all stakeholders in the decision making process to ensure that decision are well-rounded
and reflect diverse perspectives?
Answer
B. Inclusiveness
15
Match the following functions with their descriptions :
(1) Planning
(2) Organizing
(3) Directing
(4) Evaluating
Answer
Question Cancelled
16
Which of the following statements about the Central Social Welfare Board
Answer
C. SWB) is
LEAST accurate?
17
Which of the following actions is LEAST likely to be part of the Kerala State Social
Welfare Board’s strategic objectives?
Answer
B. Implementing state-wide vaccination drives
18
Which of the following is a primary objective of the Department of Social Justice and
Empowerment?
Answer
A. Enhancing the socio-economic conditions of Scheduled Castes
19
Which of the following is a key objective of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1956?
Answer
B. Promoting rehabilitation and reintegration of offenders into society
20
Under the POSCO Act, 2012, what is the minimum punishment for aggravated
penetrative sexual assault?
Answer
D. Imprisonment for 10 years
21
Which statement best defines the method of Social Group Work in social work practice?
Answer
B. It helps individuals develop social skills through purposeful group
experiences
22
Which of the following best reflects an objective of social group work?
Answer
C. To enable individuals to improve social functioning via purposeful groups
23
Which of the following is considered a key skill in social group work practice?
Answer
C. Facilitation
24
During which stage of the social group work process does the worker primarily focus on
strengthening group cohesion and promoting shared decision-making?
Answer
B. Working stage
25
According to Bruce Tuckman’s model of group development, which of the following best
describes the ‘‘storming’’ stage in the context of social group work practice?
Answer
D. Members experience conflicts as they assert individual roles and group norms
26
In the context of group dynamics, which of the following best reflects the ‘‘norming’’ stage
of group development, as per Tuckman’s model, when applied to social group work
practice?
Answer
B. Members focus on defining group purposes, establishing norms, and
strengthening emotional bonds through cooperation
27
Which principle is central to the therapeutic model of social group work in promoting
individual change?
Answer
A. Mutual aid
28
A group worker encourages members to express feelings, mediates conflicts, and helps
the group make collective decisions. Which role-function skill is primarily being
demonstrated?
Answer
B. Facilitator
29
In which setting is social group work primarily used to facilitate rehabilitation, coping
strategies, and social reintegration for individuals with restricted freedom or societal
stigma?
Answer
A. Correctional Institutions
30
A group worker observes members’ interactions, identifies conflicts, encourages
participation, and ensures the group stays focused on goals. Which primary function is
being demonstrated?
Answer
D. Facilitating group process
31
Which among the following is an effort to foster community participation and
cooperation?
Answer
C. Promote democratic attitudes in decisions
32
Mr. Jonathan is appointed as a community organizer by a corporate entity through CSR
in a fringe community in Kerala with poverty and suicide as major problems. How he can
start the community organization as a process?
Answer
A. Making community identifying its needs and objectives
33
Identify the step in the process of community organization from the options given below :
Answer
A. Participatory learning about the capacities of the people in the community
34
Sandhya as a facilitator has initiated the following activities in a fishermen community.
Identify the activities that explain the scope of community organization as a method of
social work :
Answer
C. Coordinating collective efforts to solve community problems
35
The Locality Development model of community Organisation proposed by Jack Rothman
primarily accentuate :
Answer
B. Grassroots participation and community capacity-building
36
According to Marie Weil the community practice involves :
Answer
A. Collaborative problem-solving and collective action
37
Social planning approach in community organization attempts to challenge power
imbalances and bring in social Justice. According to this approach which among the
following, are the roles of community organizer?
Answer
D. All the above
38
‘Collaborative Community Maps’ where individuals and groups can spot services,
talents, problems, or opportunities in a macro community context is an example of :
Answer
Question Cancelled
39
According to Paulo Freire, People understand structural and systemic causes of
inequality and oppression when they have :
Answer
D. Critical Consciousness
40
Wealth is not the personal property of individuals but the resource held for the welfare of
society, especially the poor and marginalized, is presented as a social philosophy in :
Answer
B. Trusteeship
41
The primary objective of Social Work Administration is :
Answer
B. To ensure effective implementation of social welfare policies and programs
42
Which is considered as a basic function of social work administration?
Answer
B. Budgeting and resource allocation
43
Which of the following principles focus on fair treatment and justice to employees?
Answer
D. Equity
44
The ‘scalar chain’ principle refers to :
Answer
A. Chain of command from top to bottom
45
Which approach highlights efficiency and task specialisation in understanding
organisations?
Answer
A. Classical Approach
46
Which of the following is an important feature of human service organisations?
Answer
B. Client-focused service delivery
47
What is the primary role of the Executive Director in CSWB?
Answer
B. Implement policies and manage daily operations
48
Who grants registration to a society under the Societies Registration Act?
Answer
A. State Government
49
A Trust Deed should include :
Answer
D. All of the above
163/2025 10 A
50
The process of influencing people to achieve organizational goals is known as :
Answer
C. Leading
51
Which of the following statements is correct about Counselling?
(i) Counselling aims at assisting normal individuals in dealing with personal and
interpersonal problems.
(ii) It is generally short-term and problem-centered.
(iii) It focuses on treatment of emotional disorders
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
52
Which of the following statements is correct about Psychoanalytic Counselling?
(i) It was developed by Sigmund Freud.
(ii) It focuses on unconscious motives and early childhood experiences.
(iii) The central techniques include free association and dream analysis.
Answer
D. All (i), (ii), (iii)
53
Which of the following statements correctly describe Transference?
(i) It occurs when a client unconsciously transfers feelings from past relationships
onto the counsellor.
(ii) It helps the counsellor understand unresolved conflicts of the client
(iii) It refers to the counsellor projecting personal feelings onto the client
Answer
C. Only (i) and (ii)
54
Which of the following statements are correct about Professional Boundaries?
(i) Boundaries define appropriate limits in the counsellor-client relationship.
(ii) Maintaining boundaries protects both counsellor and client from harm.
(iii) Crossing boundaries intentionally strengthens therapeutic rapport
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
55
Which of the following statements are true about Session Notes?
(i) Session notes summarize what occurred during a single counselling session.
(ii) They must contain detailed personal opinions and assumptions about the client.
(iii) They include client concerns, interventions used and counsellor observations.
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
56
Which of the following are common symptoms of Major Depressive Disorder?
(i) Disturbed sleep and appetite
(ii) Feelings of worthlessness or guilt
(iii) Persistent elevated mood and energy
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
57
Which of the following statements are correct about workplace counselling?
(i) Their role is to monitor employee productivity and report to management.
(ii) They promote mental well-being and work-life balance.
(iii) Counsellors help employees manage stress, burnout, and interpersonal conflicts.
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
58
Which of the following statements are true about active listening?
(i) Active listening involves hearing and accurately understanding the client’s
message.
(ii) It means silently waiting for the client to finish speaking without response.
(iii) It includes both verbal and non-verbal communication cues.
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
59
Which of the following statements are correct about the relationship-building stage?
(i) The counsellor establishes trust, rapport, and a safe environment for the client.
(ii) It Involves explaining confidentiality and the purpose of counselling
(iii) It should be skipped if the client seems cooperative.
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
60
Which of the following best represents the correct order of stages in the counselling
process?
(i) Goal Setting → Intervention → Relationship Building → Termination
(ii) Relationship Building → Assessment → Goal setting → Intervention →
Evaluation → Termination
(iii) Assessment → Goal setting → Intervention → Relationship Building →
Evaluation → Termination
Answer
B. Only (ii)
61
Which of the following statements correctly represents the judicial stance on
Fundamental Duties
Answer
C. Duties serve as interpretative aids to define the scope of Fundamental Rights
and public interest.
62
A Christian man marries a Hindu woman without conversion, through church ceremony.
What is the legal validity?
Answer
D. Valid only if registered under special Marriage Act
163/2025 13 A
63
Which of the following reflects a jurisdictional paradox between the Special Marriage Act
(SMA) and personal laws?
Answer
C. Marriage under SMA excludes personal laws in matters of marriage and
succession
64
A child adopted under Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act (HAMA) inherits property
from adoptive parents. Later, biological parents die intestate. Can the child claim
inheritance from biological parents?
Answer
B. No, adoption completely severs biological family ties
65
A woman in a long-term live-in relationship suffers abuse. The man argues PWDVA does
not apply since no marriage exists. Which principle applies?
Answer
A. Relationship “in the nature of marriage” is included
66
Consider the following statements :
1. The Dowry Prohibition Act criminalizes only the taking of dowry, not its giving.
2. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act recognizes relationships in
the nature of marriage.
3. Guardianship under the Guardians and Wards Act prioritizes welfare of the minor
above parental rights.
4, The Directive Principles of State Policy are legally enforceable by courts.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Answer
B. 2 and 8 only
67
Under the RTE Act, 2009, private schools are mandated to reserve what percentage of
seats for children from disadvantaged sections?
Answer
D. 25%
163/2025 14 A
68
Match the constitutional provisions with their purposes :
Column A Column B
a. Article 14 1. Protection of life and personal liberty
b. Article 15 2. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, sex,
caste, etc.
c. Article 21 3. Equality before law
d. Article 39A 4. Equal justice and free legal aid
Options :
Answer
A. 3,
69
Under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993
Answer
B. NHRC can summon witnesses, examine evidence and recommend actions to
the government but cannot enforce its decisions
70
Several courts/authorities have emphasized digitisation under the new trilogy
(e-Sakshya, e-FIR, cloud storage for evidence). Which of the following is the most robust
legal requirement to protect chain-of-custody and admissibility of digitised evidence?
Answer
B. Mandatory cryptographic hashing at time of seizure, audit logs, secure
tamper-evident storage, certified chain-of-custody forms, and judicially-
supervised access protocols
71
A welfare officer receives complaints from three families: Family A seeks to adopt a
3-year-old child, Family B wants to challenge a forced marriage of their 17-year-old
daughter and Family C needs protection from dowry harassment. Analysing the legal
remedies available, which combination of legislations would be MOST relevant?
(i) Juvenile Justice Act, Prohibition of Child Marriage Act and Dowry Prohibition Act
(ii) Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, Special Marriage Act and Domestic
Violence Act
(iii) Guardians and Wards Act, Prohibition of Child Marriage Act and Dowry
Prohibition Act.
Answer
C. Both (i) and (iii)
72
Consider the following statements about Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of
State Policy :
(i) Both are enforceable through courts with equal legal standing.
(ii) Directive Principles complement Fundamental Rights by providing social and
economic goals.
(iii) Courts have held that Fundamental Rights can be amended to give effect to
Directive Principles.
Which statement(s) correctly represent(s) the constitutional relationship between these
provisions?
Answer
A. Only (ii) and (iii)
73
A Managerial cum Welfare Officer encounters the following scenario: A woman from a
Scheduled Caste Community is denied entry to a public temple, faces verbal abuse and is
later subjected to domestic violence by her husband. Which legislative framework(s)
would provide the MOST comprehensive protection?
Legislation Applicability
I. SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act Denial of entry + verbal abuse
II. Protection of Civil Rights Act Religious discrimination
III. Domestic Violence Act Physical/mental abuse at home
IV. Indian Penal Code provisions All criminal offenses
Answer
D. All (I, II, III and IV)
163/2025 16 A
74
Analyse the following situations under the Right to Information Act
Situation
Answer
A. A citizen requests information about welfare fund allocation, submitted
25 days ago, but receives no response.
Situation
75
A welfare officer must advise on child protection. Consider these cases :
Case 1 : A 14-year-old working in a hazardous industry.
Case 2 : A 16-year-old denied school admission due to lack of birth certificate.
Case 3 : An 8-year-old forced into marriage.
Which legislative provisions would apply to EACH case respectively?
Answer
A. Child Labour Act, Right to Education Act, Prohibition of Child Marriage Act
76
Consider the evolution of criminal justice legislation in India :
(i) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita replaced the Indian Penal Code.
(ii) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita focuses on procedural aspects of criminal
justice.
(iii) Bharatiya Sakshaya Act deals with evidence in legal proceedings.
These changes reflect which underlying principle of social legislation?
Answer
A. Decolonization and contextualization of laws to Indian conditions.
77
Examine this table on protective mechanisms :
Complaint Type Primary Mechanism Time Limit for Action
Human Rights Violation State/National HRC Within 1 year of incident
State/National Women’s
Women’s Rights Violation No specified limit
Commission
Consumer Complaint Consumer Forum Within 2 years of cause
Environmental Damage National Green Tribunal Within 6 months
A welfare officer receives a complaint about industrial pollution affecting women
workers’ health, filed 18 months after discovery. Which approach demonstrates the
BEST understanding of overlapping jurisdiction?
Answer
C. File with multiple forums (Women’s Commission, HRC and seek medical
evidence for Consumer Forum).
78
Under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, a welfare officer must ensure
accessibility. Which statement(s) reflect(s) the correct application of the Act?
(i) Disability is viewed as a medical condition requiring certification only.
(ii) The Act mandates 4% reservation in government employment.
(iii) Reasonable accommodation must be provided without causing undue hardship.
(iv) Persons with disabilities have the right to legal capacity on equal basis with others.
Answer
B. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
79
A welfare officer must address three environmental concerns :
Concern A : Illegal dumping of hazardous waste.
Concern B : A company violates emission standards.
Concern C : A citizen needs information on environmental clearances.
Match the appropriate legal recourse:
(1) File complaint under Environmental protection Act
(2) Approach Pollution Control Board
(3) Use RTI Act for transparency
(4) Report to National Green Tribunal
Which combination is MOST effective for comprehensive action?
Answer
Question Cancelled
80
Analyse the following statement about social legislation as an instrument of social
change :
“Social legislation alone can transform societal attitudes and eliminate discrimination.”
Evaluating this in the context of laws like Dowry Prohibition Act, Child Marriage
Prohibition Act and Domestic Violence Act, which assessment is MOST accurate?
Answer
C. Legislation is a necessary but insufficient tool; it must be complemented by
awareness, enforcement and social transformation.
81
Which section of Child Labour Act (1986) provides for rehabilitation of rescued children
through the Child and Adolescent Labour Rehabilitation Fund?
Answer
B. Section 14B
82
In Kerala, which web initiative helps inmates meet visitors virtually?
Answer
B. eMulakat
83
Which Supreme Court case prohibited the use of handcuffs and fetters on prisoners
except under exceptional circumstances?
Answer
A. Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration (1980)
84
If an institution or company fails to report a POCSO offence committed by an employee,
the responsible person is punishable under :
Answer
C. Section 21(1)
85
Under the Juvenile Justice
Answer
B. Special Home
86
As per the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act (2007), failure to
pay maintenance without sufficient cause may lead to imprisonment for :
Answer
B. Upto 1 month or until payment is made
87
In which landmark judgment did the Supreme Court declare that “prisoners are persons
and entitled to fundamental rights within the limitation of imprisonment”?
Answer
C. Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration (1978)
88
Which of the following statements correctly describe the release after admonition under
Section 3?
(i) The offender receives a formal warning from the court.
(ii) The provision applies to petty offences like theft or mischief.
(iii) The offender is placed under a probation officer for supervision.
(iv) The offender is released without any sentence or fine.
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iv) only
89
Probation of Offenders Act reflects which theoretical orientation in criminology and
correctional administration?
(i) Retributive theory
(ii) Utilitarian theory
(iii) Preventive theory
(iv) Reformative theory
Answer
C. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
90
Under the POCSO Act, 2012 which section mandates that the trial shall be conducted in
camera and in a child-friendly manner?
Answer
D. Section 37
163/2025 20 A
91
The technique of “cognitive restructuring” primarily aims to :
Answer
D. Identify and challenge distorted thinking patterns
92
Which theoretical framework is most consistent with family-based intervention in
correctional settings, emphasizing families’ capacity to reorganize and adapt in response
to incarceration?
Answer
B. Psychosocial theory
93
Regarding parole in India, consider the statements :
(1) Parole is a conditional release granted after the completion of sentence.
(2) Parole is considered a part of the sentence, not a suspension of it.
Choose the correct option :
Answer
B. (2) only
94
Which of the following are rehabilitative roles of correctional social workers in the
Indian context?
(1) Linking inmates with after-care services.
(2) Helping inmates obtain identity documents for reintegration.
(3) Formulating prison discipline rules.
(4) Referring inmates to vocational training programs.
Answer
A. (1), (2) and (4)
95
Which intervention is MOST consistent with evidence-based anger management
programs in correctional settings?
Answer
B. CBT techniques focusing on cognitive restructuring
96
Arrange the following steps in correct order for suicide-prevention protocol in Indian
prisons :
(1) Immediate observation and removal of harmful objects.
(2) Mental-health screening by counsellor/social worker
(3) Transfer to high-security solitary cell if needed.
(4) Crisis counselling
Answer
Question Cancelled
97
Which factor is most central in identifying habitual offenders in India?
Answer
B. Number of prior convictions
98
An inmate attempts self-harm. Which team sequence is appropriate?
Answer
A. Prison staff → psychiatrist → psychologist → social worker
99
A prisoner reports anxiety, frequent conflicts and refusal to attend work. What is the
correct purpose of calling a case conference?
Answer
B. To integrate psychological, social and security assessments for treatment
planning.
100
Assertion
Answer
A. : Restorative Justice can reduce recidivism.
Reason (R) : It promotes offender accountability and victim satisfaction.
Discussion
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