| Post Name | Wildlife Assistant Grade II - Kerala Forest |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 064/2023 |
| Category Code | 500/2019 |
| Date of Test | 9 June 2023 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
ICZN is applicable for
Answer
B. Animals and Protists
2
Retrogressive metamorphosis denotes
Answer
C. development of simple adult from complex larva
3
Aristotle’s lantern is
Answer
A. masticatory apparatus of sea urchin
4
Which one is habituation in case of a caged dog ?
Answer
C. Stop barking at a regular visitor
5
During flood, few fishes of a river were separated from the main population into a
pond and subsequently established a new population there. This is an example of
Answer
B. Founder effect
6
Which among the following is not a measure of central tendency ?
Answer
D. mean deviation
7
Zoogeographically, madagascar belongs to
Answer
D. Ethopian region
8
In the clover leaf structure of tRNA, the 3’ end have the nucleotide sequence
Answer
B. CCA
9
Which of the following works on Beer Lambert's law ?
1. Spectrophotometer
2. Centrifuge
3. Calorimeter
4. Electrophoresis
Answer
D. 1 and3
10
What will be the magnification of a microscope with 10x eyepiece and 40x objective ?
Answer
B. 400x
11
Increased parasympathetic stimulation of the intestine would result in
Answer
B. Increased motility and relaxation of sphincters
12
Sodium reabsorption in the dCT and in the cortical portion of the collecting system
is accelerated by the secretion of
Answer
C. Aldosterone
13
depolarization of a neuron plasma membrane will shift the membrane potential
toward
Answer
A. 0 mV
14
IgE is involved in which type of hypersensitivity ?
Answer
A. Type I
15
Inner membrane of mitochondria is rich in the phospholipid
Answer
D. Cardiolipin
16
Opsonization refers to
Answer
C. coating of antigens with antibody or complement
17
Semiconservative nature of dNA replication was proved by
Answer
A. meselson and Stahl
18
Which of the following is an X-linked genetic disorder ?
Answer
D. Haemophilia
19
Selectable markers in pBR 322 are resistance genes for
Answer
A. Ampicillin and Tetracyclin
20
Find the correct matches :
i. Kaziranga National Park – One horned rhino
ii. Jim Corbet National Park – Nilgiri tahr
iii. Silent Valley National Park – lion tailed macaque
iv. Gir National Park – Asiatic lion
Answer
C. i, iii and iv are correct
21
The highest possible vital index of a species is called
Answer
C. Biotic potential
22
Overall diversity of different ecosystems within a region is called
Answer
C. Gamma diversity
23
The biodiversity index that expresses how difficult is it to predict correctly the species
of the next individual collected while sampling
Answer
B. Shannon-Weiner index
24
Who among the following is known for mangrove conservation efforts ?
Answer
A. Kallen Pokkudan
25
Select the correct sequence of IUCN red list categories.
Answer
B. least concern – Near threatened – Vulnerable – Endangered
26
Which of the following statements related to ecological pyramids is/are incorrect ?
i. Pyramid of numbers is always erect.
ii. Pyramid of energy is always upright.
iii. Pyramid of biomass is always inverted.
Answer
C. i and iii
27
Rate of photosynthesis is maximum in
Answer
Question Cancelled
28
Pentose phosphate pathway is also known as
Answer
D. All of the above
29
Which of the following stages in cell division requires energy in the form of ATP ?
Answer
C. Anaphase
30
Which one of the following represents an ex-situ conservation method ?
Answer
B. Zoological park
31
A vector that can behave as plasmid, as phages and as prophages is
Answer
A. Phasmid
32
The rate of a reaction like
Answer
C. assimilation plotted against different wavelength of light is
33
A plant has 42 chromosomes in its somatic cell. What will be the chromosome number
in its pollen grains ?
Answer
D. 21
34
Placentation in which the ovules are seen scattered irregularly along the inner wall
of the ovary is
Answer
D. Superficial
35
The enzyme that acts as “molecular scissors’’ in genetic engineering is
Answer
A. Restriction endonuclease
36
Physiological effects not specific to auxin is
Answer
C. Bolting and flowering
37
Which of the following is a termination codon ?
Answer
B. UAG
38
Which of the following is not a characteristic of desert ecosystem ?
Answer
D. Organic matter content in the soil is very high
39
Unit membrane of cells is a ___________ membrane.
Answer
B. double layered
40
Photolysis of water during photosynthesis needs the presence of
Answer
A. mn2+ and Cl–
41
The year in which the Convention on Biodiversity came into force is
Answer
B. 1993
42
Inflorescence of Ocimum is
Answer
B. Thyrsus
43
Enzyme responsible for the unwinding of dNA double helix is
Answer
A. dNA helicase
44
Characteristic aestivation of the family Fabaceae is
Answer
D. Vexillary
45
Which one among the following is an example for exotic plant species of India ?
Answer
D. All of the above
46
Assimilatory power generated during the light reaction of photosynthesis is
Answer
A. NAdPH2 and ATP
47
Pachytene of Prophase I is characterized by
Answer
D. All of the above
48
Which of the following is not a member of electron transport chain of mitochondria ?
Answer
B. Cytochrome – b6
49
A dihybrid ratio that denotes supplementary gene interaction is
Answer
D. None of the above
50
Which of the following is common for both aerobic and anaerobic respiration ?
Answer
B. Glycolysis
51
length of rotation of forest crops depends upon
i. Rate of growth
ii. Silvicultural characteristics of the species
iii. Economic considerations
iv. Social conditions
Answer
C. All the above
52
The objective of the preparation of commercial volume tables for the forest trees of Kerala: (i) to replace ocular estimation and arbitrary conversion factors with a more reliable method; (ii) estimation of commercial volume for 31 species; (iii) prepared by N. R. Nair, 1971; (iv) based on the regression equation V = a + bD + cD², where V is volume in m³ and D is diameter at breast height in metres.
Answer
D. All the above
53
Which among the following statements about bats are true ?
Answer
D. All the above
54
How many hectares of protected areas in Kerala ?
Answer
A. 3500 ha
55
The Chairperson of National Board of Wildlife is
Answer
B. Prime minister
56
The red list of conservation status of animals and plants are published by
Answer
A. IUCN
57
In 1988 Forest Policy emphasized that area degraded under shifting cultivation should
be rehabilitated through
Answer
A. Social forestry and energy plantations
58
__________ is average lifespan of a captive tiger.
Answer
B. 20 years
59
_____________ is a register in which all activities and works carried out in plantation
area related to plantation are recorded from time to time.
Answer
C. Plantation Journal
60
In order to estimate the elephant density from dung density, we need to estimate
defecation rate and
Answer
C. dung decay rate
61
Champion and Seth (1968) have used __________ and ___________ data for
classifying the Indian forest into five major groups and 16 type groups
Answer
D. Temperature and rainfall
62
Which among the following is true about ‘musth’ in elephants ?
i. musth is a disease.
ii. Characterized by a large rise in reproductive hormones.
iii. It actually means the elephant is healthy.
iv. Characteristics of both male and female elephant.
Answer
B. ii and iii
63
Point-Centred Quarter method (PCQm) is a method used for the estimation of
Answer
B. Plant density
64
The lion-tailed macaque (Macaca silenus) is an endangered primate found in
_________ National Park of Kerala.
Answer
C. Silent Valley
65
Working plan maps are usually prepared in the scale
Answer
A. 1 : 10000
66
What is India’s Rationale behind reintroduction of Cheetah ?
Answer
D. All the above
67
Pre-requisites for sustainable yield management is
Answer
B. Complete series of age gradation
68
Under the supervision of the Chief Conservator of Forests, working plans are prepared
by the Working Plan Officers is to be revised every
Answer
B. 10 years
69
Seed orchard covers which among the following criteria ?
i. Plantation of genetically improved trees.
ii. Isolated to reduce pollination from genetically inferior outside sources.
iii. Intensively managed to produce frequent, abundant and easily harvested seed
crops.
Answer
D. All the above
70
Number of tiger reserves in Kerala
Answer
A. 2
71
Which subject was transferred to Concurrent List from State List by 42 nd Amendment
Act of 1976 ?
Answer
D. All the above
72
Which type of forest crop raised out of shoots produced from the cut stumps of the
previous crop and is beneficial in the regeneration of short rotation crops ?
Answer
A. Coppice forestry
73
The most common method of pretreatment for Techtona grandis seeds is
Answer
C. Alternate wetting and drying for 7 days
74
Under ‘Project Elephant’, the Government of Kerala notified 4 Elephant Reserves
namely
Answer
A. Wayanad, Nilambur, Anamudi and Periyar
75
World’s oldest teak plantations were established at
Answer
A. Nilambur by mr. Chathu menon
76
Tusks of elephants are actually the overgrown
i. Incisor teeth
ii. Canine teeth
iii. Premolar teeth
iv. molar teeth
Answer
A. Only i
77
Glucogenic VFA produced in rumen is
Answer
B. Propionic acid
78
The largest leukocyte in animals is
Answer
A. monocyte
79
The government of India launched the Project Tiger in the year
Answer
B. 1973
80
The most endangered deer species in India is
Answer
A. Eld’s deer
81
Which among the following is an environmental enrichment option that can be applied
in zoos ?
Answer
D. All the above
82
Which of the following is a species endemic to Western Ghats ?
Answer
A. Nilgiri langur
83
Which of the following is a non-invasive diagnostic screening tool in wild animals ?
Answer
C. Infrared thermography
84
Which of the following animal is concentrate feeder ?
Answer
C. Barking deer
85
Glucanolactone oxidase enzyme is present in
Answer
C. loris
86
Which of the following animals are hind gut fermenters ?
i. Wild pig
ii. Elephant
iii. Rhinocerous
iv. Tapir
Answer
D. i, ii, iii and iv
87
daily requirement of fresh green fodder that has to be fed to a spotted deer, of about
70 kg body weight, in captivity
Answer
C. 5 kg
88
The species of wild animals resistant to foot and mouth disease is
Answer
D. Equine
89
A mosquito borne viral disease affecting wild animals
Answer
B. Rift valley fever
90
mad itch is another name for
Answer
B. Pseudorabies
91
Star gazing in lions is associated mainly with which of the following conditions ?
Answer
C. Vitamin A deficiency
92
Ascoli precipitin test is best used for diagnosis of
Answer
A. Anthrax
93
Which of the following reflects only the rate of disease occurrence and indicates
number of new cases of a disease recorded within a specified time period ?
Answer
A. Incidence rate
94
Arboviruses are
i. Arthropod borne viruses
ii. Air borne viruses
iii. Soil borne viruses
iv. Water borne viruses
Answer
A. Only i is correct
95
The causative agent for Kyasanur Forest disease is
Answer
C. Flavivirus
96
Which of the following statement is true about lung fluke infection ?
i. The flukes reside as pair within lung cysts in tigers.
ii. Infection is acquired by ingestion of crabs.
iii. Egg of the lung fluke is infective to tigers.
Answer
D. Both i and ii are true
97
Choose the most appropriate statements with respect to diagnosis of Trypanosoma
evansi infection in elephants.
i. diagnosis is possible with blood sample.
ii. Wet blood film and polymerase chain reactions are the diagnostic tests.
iii. The parasite is an extracellular moving haemoflagellate.
iv. Faecal sample is not the sample of choice for diagnosis.
Answer
C. All i, ii, iii and iv are true
98
Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to Avian Influenza ?
Answer
A. The HPAI H5N1 infect poultry only
99
Traumatic hepatitis is an important feature of
Answer
B. Acute Fasciolosis
100
Eating raw fishes is the transmission mode of which of the following parasites ?
Answer
D. Diphyllobothrium
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